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-BARSIC- [3]
2 years ago
14

A graduated commission employee makes 3. 5% interest on the first $50,000 in sales and 6. 5% interest on all sales over $50,000.

Which of the following expressions represents the employee’s total earnings on $81,500 in sales? a. (0. 035)(50,000) (0. 065)(81,500) b. (0. 035)(50,000) (0. 065)(31,500) c. (0. 35)(50,000) (0. 65)(31,500) d. (3. 5)(50,000) (6. 5)(31,500).
Business
1 answer:
Harman [31]2 years ago
8 0

The correct form of expression to express the context earning on the sales of the products is  (0. 035)(50,000) (0. 065)(81,500).

The context is about a graduate who earns on the basis of commission on the fixed amount of stock. On the sale of the first $ 50,000, he is getting 3.5% and the sales above $50,000 he is getting a commission of 6.5%.

Thus, the rate of 3.5% will be multiplied with the sales of %50,000, and the rate of 6.5% will be multiplied by the number of sales above $50,000 that is $81,500.

Therefore, the correct option is a.

To know more about the expressions that express the total earning of the employee, refer to the link below:

brainly.com/question/2337923

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Flint Inc. issued $3,790,000 of 10%, 10-year convertible bonds on June 1, 2020, at 99 plus accrued interest. The bonds were date
gulaghasi [49]

Answer:

A. Dr Interest Payable $63,167

Dr Interest expense $127,617

Cr Discount on Bonds payable $1,284

Cr Cash $189,500

B. Dr Bonds payable $1,421,250

Cr Discount on Bonds payable $13,008

Cr Common Stock $612,000

Cr Paid-in capital in excess of par- Common Stock $796,242

Explanation:

(a) Preparation of the entry to record the interest expense at October 1, 2020. Assume that accrued interest payable was credited when the bonds were issued.

Dr Interest Payable $63,167

[($3,790,000*.10)/2*(2/6)]

Dr Interest expense $127,617

[($3,790,000*.10)/2*(4/6) + $1,284]

Cr Discount on Bonds payable $1,284

($321*4)

Cr Cash $189,500

[ ( $3,790,000*.10)/2]

(To record interest expense at October 1, 2020.)

Calculation for the discount per month

First step is to calculate the remaining months

Months remaining= (10 years *12-2)

Months remaining=118 months

Second step is to calculate the Total discount

Total Discount= $3,790,000-($3,790,000*.99)

Total discount=$3,790,000-$3,752,100

Total discount=$37,900

Now let calculate the discount per month

Discount per month=($37,900/118)

Discount per month=$321

(b) Preparation of the entry to record the conversion on April 1, 2021

Dr Bonds payable $1,421,250

Cr Discount on Bonds payable $13,008

Cr Common Stock $612,000

(34,000*$18)

Cr Paid-in capital in excess of par- Common Stock $796,242

[$1,421,250-($13,008+$612,000)]

(To record conversion of bond into 34,000 shares.)

Calculation for Unamortized bond discount

Discount of the bonds $14,213

($37,900*(3/8))

Less Discount amortized ($1,205)

[($37,900/118)*10 years*(3/8)]

Unamortized bond discount $13,008

($14,213-$1,205)

8 0
3 years ago
Tigger was terminated from the local ice cream shop as the staff manager. He did not manage by example including being rude to c
Lisa [10]

He failed at Human Resources functional area of management

Let understand that the functional area of management is the section of management of a firm which ensures that the important business activities are carried out efficiently.

The functional area of management is distinctively categorized into 6 part and they includes:

  1. Strategic area of management
  2. Marketing area of management
  3. Finance area of management
  4. Human resources area of management
  5. Technology & equipment area of management
  6. Operations area of management

In conclusion, the area that Tigger failed at is the Human Resources area because he need to serves as a good example for his Subordinate as well as effectively manage them, whereas, he failed at it.

Learn more about functional area of management here

<em>brainly.com/question/14594002</em>

6 0
3 years ago
According to the _____, the most effective management theory or idea depends on the kinds of problems or situations that manager
german

Answer: The contingency approach

Explanation:

 The contingency approach is one of the type of management theory that helps in understanding the various types of principles in an organization and it is also refers as the situational approach.

The main objective of the contingency approach is that it provide manager the different types of ways to give reaction on the given issue and different types of situation.

 According to the question, the contingency approach helps in providing the different types of effective ideas to the manager where they facing different types of problems in an organization.  

 Therefore, contingency approach is the correct answer.

6 0
3 years ago
produces sports socks. The company has fixed expenses of $ 75 comma 000$75,000 and variable expenses of $ 0.75$0.75 per package.
8090 [49]

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Selling price= $1.5

Unitary variable cost= $0.75

Fi<u>rst, we need to calculate the unitary contribution margin:</u>

<u></u>

Contribution margin= selling price - unitary variable cost

Contribution margin= 1.5 - 0.75

Contribution margin= $0.75

<u>Now, we can calculate the contribution margin ratio:</u>

contribution margin ratio= contribution margin/selling price

contribution margin ratio= 0.75/1.5

contribution margin ratio= 0.5

7 0
3 years ago
In measuring an impairment loss for a financial asset under U.S. GAAP and under IFRS, the carrying value of the financial asset
Vitek1552 [10]

In measuring an impairment loss for a financial asset under U.S. GAAP and under IFRS, the carrying value of the financial asset would be compared to:

under U.S. GAAP Fair value and under IFRS recoverable amount.

Explanation:

In US GAAP, the cost of financial asset depreciation is calculated as the difference between carried value and fair value; in compliance with IFRS, a loss of financial asset impairment is defined as the difference between carrying value and the percentage of the asset that can be recouped.

In compliance with US-based ASC 360-10-35-20. The recovery of a historically identified impairment loss (or "restoration") is forbidden because an item is deemed to have a new cost base after an impairment loss has been registered.

7 0
3 years ago
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