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2 years ago

Does light have a shadow?

Physics

2 answers:

NeX [460]2 years ago

5 0

Answer:

light itself doesn't have a shadow

Explanation:

light emits light to where things around the light may create the shadows

borishaifa [10]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Explanation:

Actually it the complete opposite. A shadow is an absence (or decrease of) of light because an object blocking its path.

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When you rub a balloon on a sweater or your hair, the what is transferred to the balloon giving it a what charge. The balloon wi

Elis [28]

Answer:

When you rub a balloon on a sweater or your hair, the electrons are transferred to the balloon giving it a negative charge. The balloon will then repel any object that has a different charge.

hope this helps :)

5 0

3 years ago

What does scientific theory mean

olchik [2.2K]

A scientific theory is an explanation of an aspect of the natural world that can be repeatedly tested and verified in accordance with the scientific method, using accepted protocols of observation, measurement, and evaluation of results. Where possible, theories are tested under controlled conditions in an experiment.

4 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A cyclotron is designed to accelerate protons (mass 1.67 x 10^-27 kg) up to a kinetic energy of 2.5 x 10^-13 J. If the magnetic

Dafna11 [192]

Answer:

24 cm

Explanation:

Given:

Mass of proton = 1.67 × 10⁻²⁷ Kg

kinetic energy = 2.5 × 10⁻¹³ J

magnetic field in the cyclotron, B = 0.75 T

Now,

Kinetic energy = $\frac{1}{2}mv^2$ = 2.5 × 10⁻¹³ J

where, v is the velocity of the electron

$\frac{1}{2}\times1.67\times10^{-27}\times v^2$ = 2.5 × 10⁻¹³ J

v² = 2.99 × 10¹⁴

v = 1.73 × 10⁷ m/s

also,

centripetal force = magnetic force

$\frac{mv^2}{r}$ = qvB

q is the charge of the electron

r is the radius of the dipole magnets

on substituting the respective values, we get

$\frac{1.67\times10^{-27}\times1.73\times10^7}{r}$ = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ × 0.75

r = 0.2408 m ≈ 24 cm

Hence, the correct answer is 24 cm

6 0

3 years ago

Given the initial wavefunction Ψ (x, 0) = Axexp (-k x) withx> 0 andk> 0, and Ψ (x, 0) = 0 forx <0, what value must A ta

madam [21]

Answer with explanation:

The Normalization Principle states that

$\int_{-\infty }^{+\infty }f(x)dx=1$

Given

$f(x)=xe^{-kx}(x>0\\\\0(x$

Thus solving the integral we get

$\int_{0 }^{+\infty }A\cdot xe^{-kx}dx=1\\\\A\int_{0 }^{+\infty }\cdot xe^{-kx}dx=1$

The integral shall be solved using chain rule initially and finally we shall apply the limits as shown below

$I=\int xe^{-kx}dx\\\\x\int e^{-kx}dx-\int \frac{d(x)}{dx}\int e^{-kx}dx\\\\-\frac{xe^{-kx}}{k}-\int 1\cdot \frac{-e^{-kx}}{k}\\\\\therefore I=\frac{e^{-kx}}{k}-\frac{xe^{-kx}}{k}$

Applying the limits and solving for A we get

$I=\frac{1}{k}[\frac{1}{e^{kx}}-\frac{x}{e^{kx}}]_{0}^{+\infty }\\\\I=-\frac{1}{k}\\\\\therefore A=-k$

3 0

3 years ago

Please refer to the picture

Vinvika [58]

I think is c not sure though

3 0

3 years ago