C + a = 138.....c = 138 - a
5.10c + 8.70a = 995.40
5.10(138 - a) + 8.70a = 995.40
703.80 - 5.10a + 8.70a = 995.40
-5.10a + 8.70a = 995.40 - 703.80
3.60a = 291.60
a = 291.60/3.60
a = 81 <===
Answer: 2u+4 <8= u<2
2u+4<8
Step 1: Subtract 4 from both sides.
2u+4−4<8−4
2u<4
Step 2: Divide both sides by 2.
2u/2<4/2
u<2
<u>4u-53 15</u>
=4u−795
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer: £90
Step-by-step explanation:
Pip and Sara get some money. They share it in the ratio 5 : 4.
Pip gets £50 so what did Sara get:
Use direct proportion:
5 : 4
50 : x
5x = 200
x = 200/5
x = £40
Pip got £50 and Sara got £40.
Together they got:
= 50 + 40
= £90
Answer:
The answer is True.
Step-by-step explanation:
Sales variance is computed in same manner as cost variance that is computing both price and volume variance. However interpretation of end result will not be same. For example in material price variance if
A = actual purchase price = $ 4, B = standard purchase price= $ 5 and Qt= quantity purchased = 500 units then
Material price varaince = 500 (5-4) = 500,
This gives us favourable price variance of 500 dollars. However in sales price variance if
A = actual sales price = $ 4, B = standard sale price= $ 5 and Qt= quantity sold = 500 units then
Sale price varaince = 500 (5-4) = (500)
This gives us unfavourable sales price variance of 500 dollars.
This show that formulas to compute variances are same but sale price decrease give us un favorable variance and cost price decrease gives us favorable price variance and vice versa.
You would do 375 divided by 60% and get 6.25 if need to round to nearest whole it would be 6
