Answer:
Cost the lower the demand
Money is a kind of asset in an economy that is castoff to purchase goods and amenities from other people. A commodity is a physical thing that is willingly substitutable with one more item of the same type. Commodity money is a commodity that has intrinsic value. Intrinsic value is the commodity has worth though it is not used as money. So the answer is a woman offers her neighbor a US silver dollar in exchange for a bicycle.
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Determining that the study has a maximization of benefits and a minimization of risks is the best example of how the Principle of Beneficence can be applied to a study employing human subjects.
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The principle of beneficence demands that the human subjects have self-determination. Also if some of the human subjects do not have the power to take decisions, the investigators should make sure that the human subjects are not harmed. The researchers should increase the chances of benefits and decrease the amount of risk.
The research studies which include human subjects, even those that have very little risk should not be taken into consideration if it does not create scientifically valid or presents us new facts. It is very confusing for the researchers to determine when the benefits should be taken into consideration because of the risks and benefits should be sought despite the risks.
Answer:
B) If there are many substitutes, the price elasticity of the good is more elastic.
Explanation:
Price elasticity of demand measures how quantity demanded changes when price level changes.
If there are subsituites for a good, the demand for the good tends to be more elastic - a small change in price leads to a greater change in quantity demanded.
Suppliers would be less motivated to increase prices if there are many close substitutes for its goods.
I hope my answer helps you.
Answer:
The value of x is 566.36
Explanation:
The value of x should be such that the present value of both Investments is the same when discounted at a rate of 11%. To calculate the present value, we use the following formula,
Present Value = CF 1 / (1+r) + CF 2 / (1+r)^2 + ... + CFn / (1+r)^n
Where,
- CF represents Cash flow
- r represents the discount rate
So, we equate both the present value of Investment A and B to calculate the value of x.
Present Value of A = Present Value of B
450/(1.11) + 650/(1.11)^2 + 850/(1.11)^3 = 850/(1.11) + x/(1.11)^2 + 450/(1.11)^3
1554.472661 = 765.7657658 + x/(1.11)^2 + 329.0361216
1554.472661 - 765.7657658 - 329.0361216 = x/(1.11)^2
459.6707736 * (1.11)^2 = x
x = 566.3603602 rounded off to 566.36
