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Lostsunrise [7]
2 years ago
13

HELP PLEASE!Which diagram represents a fraction equivalent to 40%? ​

Mathematics
2 answers:
Aleksandr [31]2 years ago
7 0
The answer is 2/4 pick that and you’ll get it right
KonstantinChe [14]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

2/5. hope this helps.

Step-by-step explanation:

2/5 has a decimal of 0.4, and the percentage is 40%.

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What is 3y plus 5x=-15 written in slope-intercept form?
ohaa [14]

To make an equation into slope intercept form, Y must have no coefficient.


So to solve

3y + 5x = -15\\3y = -5x-15\\y = -\frac{5}{3}x-3

3 0
3 years ago
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Heather's graduation picnic will cost $62 if it has 31 attendees. If there are 137 attendees, how much will Heather's graduation
alina1380 [7]

Answer:

274

Step-by-step explanation:

This because you have to find how much one person cost and each person has to pay 2 dollars because 31 times 2 equal 62. So you do 2 times 137.

Sorry if I am wrong but the should be the answer.

8 0
3 years ago
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Choose the family of distributions that best fits the described situation: You want to model the number of lines of code run unt
damaskus [11]

Answer is : Geometric distribution

Let X be the number of lines of codes run until the first bug is detected

That is X is the random variable which is the number of trials needed to get first success. Success here is detection of bug . Success has constant probability in each trail which is p= 0.003 . That is before the first success we have    X-1 failures with probability (1-0.003)

The probability mass function of X is

P(X=x) = (1-p)x-1 p

P(X=x ) = (1-0.003)x-1 *0.003 , x= 1,2,....

This distribution is also Negative Binomial distribution  

As geometric distribution is special case of Negative Binomial Distribution

In Negative Binomial distribution , we have r success ( r\geq 1) and the random variable is the number of Bernouli trials needed to get r successes .

If we put , r= 1, that is number of success is 1

Then the given situation , that is number of lines code run(X) before the first bug follow negative binomial distribution

The probability mass function of Negative Binomial distribution is

P(X=x) = (1-p)x-r pr ,x= r , r+1 , .....

The probability mass function of X is

P(X=x, r=1 ) = (1-0.003)x-1 *0.003 , x= 1,2,....

3 0
4 years ago
Find the GCF of 260,80,50
pantera1 [17]

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Can anyone please help me?
meriva
Answer c 


this is for 20 characters
7 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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