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Lets make the fractions all like terms.
242/4 - 37/4=205/4. Lets now make this a mixed fraction.
By doing 205/4, we find out that 4 goes in less than 51 times.
1. 51 1/4.
2. 11/2 = 66/12.....so 66/12 - 29/12= 37/12. Make it mixed fraction: 3 1/12.
3. 36/5=72/10. 72/10 - 37/10 = 35/10. As a mixed it is 3 1/2
4. 35/3 - 17/2 can be rewritten by finding their GCM (Greatest Common Multiple). In this case it is 6.
70/6 - 51/6 = 19/6. 3 1/6.
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Answer:
I think the incenter of LO is 27 like ML
Step-by-step explanation:
because LO is almost the same of ML
Answer:
x = -1.5625
Step-by-step explanation:
Solve for x:
-8 x - 12.5 = 0
Add 12.5` to both sides:
(12.5 - 12.5) - 8 x = 12.5
12.5 - 12.5 = 0:
-8 x = 12.5
Divide both sides of -8 x = 12.5 by -8:
(-8 x)/(-8) = 12.5/(-8)
(-8)/(-8) = 1:
x = 12.5/(-8)
12.5/(-8) = -1.5625:
Answer: x = -1.5625
We have to find the values of F.
In this case. F is unlikely to be a polynomial.
But the problem is, we can’t calculate the values of F directly.
There is no real value of x for which x = x−1 x because F isn’t defined at 0 or 1. so,
substituting x = 2.
F(2) + F(1/2) = 3.
Substitute, x = 1/2
F(1/2) + F(−1) = −1/2.
We still are not getting the required value,
therefore,
Substitute x = −1
As, F(2) +F(−1) = 0.
now we have three equations in three unknowns, which we can solve.
It turns out that:
F(2) = 3/4
F(3) = 17/12
F(4) = 47/24
and
F(5) = 99/40
Setting
g(x) = 1 − 1/x
and using
2 → 1/2
to denote
g(2) = 1/2
we see that :
x → 1 - 1/x → 1/(1-x) →xso that:
g(g(g(x))) = x.
Therefore, whatever x 6= 0, 1 we start with, we will always get three equations in the three “unknowns” F(x), F(g(x)) and F(g(g(x))).
Now solve these equations to get a formula for F(x)
As,
h(x) = (1+x)/(1−x)which satisfies
h(h(h(h(x)))) = xNow, mapping x to h(x) corresponds to rotating the circle by ninety degrees.
If you calculate SLE to be $25,000 and that there will be one occurrence every four years (ARO), then the ALE is $40,000.
<h3>What is Single-loss expectancy (SLE)?</h3>
A expected monetary decline each moment an asset is at risk is referred to as single-loss expectancy (SLE). It is a term that is most frequently used during risk analysis and attempts to assign a monetary value to each individual threat.
Quantitative risk analysis predicts the likelihood of certain risk outcomes as well as their approximate monetary cost using relevant, verifiable data.
IT professionals must consider a wide range of risks, including the following:
- Errors caused by humans
- Cyber attacks, unauthorised data disclosure, or data misuse are examples of hostile action.
- Errors in application
- System or network failures
- Physical harm caused by fire, natural disasters, or vandalism.
To know more about the Single-loss expectancy (SLE), here
brainly.com/question/14587600
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