There are no given figures. I'll just show what the difference is. Let us assume the following
Principal = 10,000
interest rate = 12%
term = 4 years
Simple Interest = Principal * interest rate * term
S.I = 10,000 * 12% * 4 years
S.I = 4,800
Total value at the end of 4 yrs = 10,000 + 4,800 = 14,800
Compounded Interest. Compounded quarterly.
A = P(1 + r/n)^n*t
A = 10,000 (1 + 12%/4)^4*4
A = 10,000 (1.03)^16
A = 10,000 (1.60)
A = 16,000 value after 4 years.
Answer: The discount is $180, and the price with the discount is $1,020.
Step-by-step explanation: Multiply 1,200 times .15 to get the discount, or how much you get off. Then subtract the answer, which is $180, from the original price, to get $1,020. This is the price with the discount.
Answer:because it’s just reversed
Step-by-step explanation:
Obtuse: b^2 + c^2 > a^2
Right: b^2 + c^2 = a^2
Acute: b^2 + c^2 < a^2
A^2 + B^2 + c^2 - 2bc*cosA
As (A), is an Obtuse cos A is Negative say 2bccosA = - k then;
a^2 = b^2 + c^2 + k
a^2 > b^2 + c^2
So, your Answer would be (B)
Hope this helps!!.!
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
5,9,11,(13,16),16,19,21
the mean(middle number) = (13 + 16) / 2 = 29/2 = 14.5
Q1 = (9 + 11) / 2 = 20/2 = 10
Q3 = (16 + 19) / 2 = 35/2 = 17.5
interquartile range (IQR) = Q3 - Q1 = 17.5 - 10 = 7.5 <==
