The formula
in solving the integral of the infinity of 3 is ∫3<span>∞?</span>(1<span>)÷((</span>x−2<span><span>)<span><span>(3/</span><span>2)</span></span></span>)</span><span>dx</span>
Substitute the numbers given
then solve
limn→inf∫3n(1/((n−2)(3/2))dn
limn→inf[−2/(n−2−−−−−√)−(−2/3−2−−−−√)
=0+2=2
Solve for the integral of 2 when 2 is approximate to 0.
Transpose 2 from the other side to make it -2
∫∞3(x−2)−3/2dx=(x−2)−1/2−1/2+C
(x−2)−1/2=1x−2−−−−√
0−(3−2)−1/2−1/2=2
<span> </span>
First we need to know both the formula of A and B.
The formula of A is
C = 5 + 0.25p
with C representing total cost and p representing the amount of checks.
The formula of B is
C = 6 + 0.15p
with C representing total cost and p representing the amount of checks.
To find the point where A and B cost the same, we solve the following equation:
5 + 0.25p = 6 + 0.15p
Collecting terms gives us
-1 = -0.1p
Now we have to divide by -0.1 and we get.
10 = p
p = 10
So our answer: after 10 checks both accounts cost the same amount of money. Answer A.
The answer is 40*8.50 * 7.65/100 = 26.01 and that's your answer
<h2>
Answer: D. 0.6</h2>
Step-by-step explanation:
Four students studied at least four hours.