Answer:
y ≈ 2.5
Explanation:
Given data:
bottom width is 3 m
side slope is 1:2
discharge is 10 m^3/s
slope is 0.004
manning roughness coefficient is 0.015
manning equation is written as

where R is hydraulic radius
S = bed slope



P is perimeter 

![Q = (2+2y) y) \times 1/0.015 [\frac{(3+2y) y}{(3+2\sqrt{5} y)}]^{2/3} 0.004^{1/2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=Q%20%3D%20%282%2B2y%29%20y%29%20%5Ctimes%201%2F0.015%20%5B%5Cfrac%7B%283%2B2y%29%20y%7D%7B%283%2B2%5Csqrt%7B5%7D%20y%29%7D%5D%5E%7B2%2F3%7D%200.004%5E%7B1%2F2%7D)
solving for y![100 =(2+2y) y) \times (1/0.015) [\frac{(3+2y) y}{(3+2\sqrt{5} y)}]^{2/3} \times 0.004^{1/2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=100%20%3D%282%2B2y%29%20y%29%20%5Ctimes%20%281%2F0.015%29%20%5B%5Cfrac%7B%283%2B2y%29%20y%7D%7B%283%2B2%5Csqrt%7B5%7D%20y%29%7D%5D%5E%7B2%2F3%7D%20%5Ctimes%200.004%5E%7B1%2F2%7D)
solving for y value by using iteration method ,we get
y ≈ 2.5
Answer:
Gc(s) = 
Explanation:
comparing the standard approximation with the plot attached we can tune the PI gains so that the desired response is obtained. this is because the time requirement of the setting is met while the %OS requirement is not achieved instead a 12% OS is seen from the plot.
attached is the detailed solution and the plot in Matlab
Answer:
%Reduction in area = 73.41%
%Reduction in elongation = 42.20%
Explanation:
Given
Original diameter = 12.8 mm
Gauge length = 50.80mm
Diameter at the point of fracture = 6.60 mm (0.260 in.)
Fractured gauge length = 72.14 mm.
%Reduction in Area is given as:
((do/2)² - (d1/2)²)/(do/2)²
Calculating percent reduction in area
do = 12.8mm, d1 = 6.6mm
So,
%RA = ((12.8/2)² - 6.6/2)²)/(12.8/2)²
%RA = 0.734130859375
%RA = 73.41%
Calculating percent reduction in elongation
%Reduction in elongation is given as:
((do) - (d1))/(d1)
do = 72.14mm, d1 = 50.80mm
So,
%RA = ((72.24) - (50.80))/(50.80)
%RA = 0.422047244094488
%RA = 42.20%
Answer:
B A and C
Explanation:
Given:
Specimen σ
σ
A +450 -150
B +300 -300
C +500 -200
Solution:
Compute the mean stress
σ
= (σ
+ σ
)/2
σ
= (450 + (-150)) / 2
= (450 - 150) / 2
= 300/2
σ
= 150 MPa
σ
= (300 + (-300))/2
= (300 - 300) / 2
= 0/2
σ
= 0 MPa
σ
= (500 + (-200))/2
= (500 - 200) / 2
= 300/2
σ
= 150 MPa
Compute stress amplitude:
σ
= (σ
- σ
)/2
σ
= (450 - (-150)) / 2
= (450 + 150) / 2
= 600/2
σ
= 300 MPa
σ
= (300- (-300)) / 2
= (300 + 300) / 2
= 600/2
σ
= 300 MPa
σ
= (500 - (-200))/2
= (500 + 200) / 2
= 700 / 2
σ
= 350 MPa
From the above results it is concluded that the longest fatigue lifetime is of specimen B because it has the minimum mean stress.
Next, the specimen A has the fatigue lifetime which is shorter than B but longer than specimen C.
In the last comes specimen C which has the shortest fatigue lifetime because it has the higher mean stress and highest stress amplitude.
Answer:
Isolated system
Explanation:
By definition of a closed system it means that a system that does not interact with it's surroundings in any manner
The other options are explained as under:
Isothermal system : It is a system that does not allow it's temperature to change
Control Mass system : It is a system whose mass remains conserved which means the mass entering the system equals the mass leaving the system
Open system: It is a system that allows transfer of mass and energy across it's boundary without any opposition i.e freely.