i had to do the answer as a pic cuz my iPad is gonna die.
sorry <:)
Answer: at the values where cos(x) = 0Justification:1) tan(x) = sin(x) / cos(x).
2) functions have vertical asymptotes at x = a if Limit of the function x approaches a is + or - infinity.
3) the limit of tan(x) approaches +/- infinity where cos(x) approaches 0.
Therefore, the grpah of y = tan(x) has asymptotes where cos(x) = 0.
You can see the asympotes at x = +/- π/2 on the attached graph. Remember that cos(x) approaches 0 when x approaches +/- (n+1) π/2, for any n ∈ N, so there are infinite asymptotes.
Since the slope is -2 because
x1: -1 x2: 0
y1: 2 y2: 0
y2-y1/x2-x1 = slope (0-2/0+1= -2/1 = -2)
You would havr to change it into point slope form so it would look like this
Y-2 = -2(x+1)
y-2 = -2x -2
+2 +2
y = -2x + 0
Hope this helps:)
Hhjhhhu did I need ooo 40