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nikdorinn [45]
3 years ago
13

6th grade mathematics Find the number that makes the ratio equivalent to 40:16 5:

Mathematics
2 answers:
sineoko [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

5:2

Step-by-step explanation:

40÷5=8

16÷2=8

hope this helps you!!

Liono4ka [1.6K]3 years ago
4 0
240:90/80,30/160:6/ 200:75 each slash is a diff ratio
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What is 2x-6 = 3x+1-X-7 and you have to regroup/ divide by number next to x?
Elena L [17]

Answer:

infinite solutions

Step-by-step explanation:

2x-6 = 3x+1-X-7

Combine like terms

2x-6 = 3x-x +1-7

2x-6 = 2x -6

subtract 2x from each side

-6 = -6

Since this is a true statement, x can be any real number

5 0
3 years ago
If x = 12 and y = 3, what is the value of the following expression?
Natasha_Volkova [10]

Answer:

A: 19

Step-by-step explanation:

x-8+5y

12-8+(5x3)

12-8+15

4+15

19

I hope this helps

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A Martian couple has children until they have 2 males (sexes of children are independent). Compute the expected number of childr
Ne4ueva [31]

Answer:

a) 6

b) 4

c) 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Let p be the probability of having a female Martian, and of course, 1-p the probability of having a male Martian.

To compute the expected total number of trials before 2 males are born, imagine an experiment simulating the fact that 2 males are born is performed n times.

Let ak be the number of trials performed until 2 males are born in experiment k. That is,

a1= number of trials performed until 2 males are born in experiment 1

a2= number of trials performed until 2 males are born in experiment 2

and so on.

If a1 + a2 + … + an = N

we would expect Np females.  

Since the experiment was performed n times, there 2n males (recall that the experiment stops when 2 males are born).

So we would expect 2n = N(1-p), or

N/n = 2/(1-p)

But N/n is the average number of trials per experiment, that is, the expectation.

<em>We have then that the expected number of trials before 2 males are born is 2/(1-p) where p is the probability of having a female. </em>

a)

Here we have the probability of having a male is half as likely as females. So

1-p = p/2 hence p=2/3

The expected number of trials would be

2/(1-2/3) = 2/(1/3) =6

This means <em>the couple would have 6 children</em>: 4 females (the first 4 trials) and 2 males (the last 2 trials).

b)

Here the probability of having a female = probability of having a male = 1/2

The expected number of trials would be

2/(1/2) = 4

This means<em> the couple would have 4 children</em>: 2 females (the first 2 trials) and 2 males (the last 2 trials).

c)

Here, 1-p = 2p so p=1/3

The expected number of trials would be

2/(1-1/3) = 2/(2/3) = 6/2 =3

This means<em> the couple would have 3 children</em>: 1 female (the first trial) and 2 males (the last 2 trials).

5 0
4 years ago
What is 7 divided by 2/3
soldier1979 [14.2K]

Answer:

10.5

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
PLS HELP.
frozen [14]

Answer:

15 people

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
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