1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
kipiarov [429]
2 years ago
7

Jack says 2÷2=2 and Sam says 2÷2=9 and Paul says 2÷2=1,who is corrcet?Hello I am new​

Mathematics
1 answer:
yarga [219]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Paul is correct 2 divided by 2 equals 1

Step-by-step explanation:

If you divide 2 by 2 you get 1 because 2×2=4 and 2×1=2

You might be interested in
Brianna has 4 pink bracelets. One third of all her bracelets are pink . How many bracelets does Brianna have ?
Korvikt [17]

Answer:

Total number of bracelets  Brianna have are 12 .

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us assume that the total numbers of the bracelets be x .

As given

Brianna has 4 pink bracelets.

One third of all her bracelets are pink .

Than the equation becomes

\frac{1\times x}{3} = 4

Simplify the above

x = 4 × 3

x = 12

Therefore the total number of bracelets  Brianna have are 12 .


4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A . What is the slope in the line of the graph ?
vampirchik [111]

Answer:

0.2x+3

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
What is the area of a circle with the diameter of 8
Mars2501 [29]
Area = πr^2
π4^2 =16π
=50.3
5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Question is in the picture
ANTONII [103]

Answer:

She forgot to flip the inequality sign when dividing both sides by -4

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
consider there are three machines. All of the machines can produce 1000 pins at a time. Therate of producing a faulty pin from M
blondinia [14]

Answer:

0.03333

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that there are three machines. All of the machines can produce 1000 pins at a time.

Chance for any machine is thus equaly likely = 1/3

The rate of producing a faulty pin from Machine 1 be 10%, from Machine 2 be 20% andfrom Machine3 be 5%.

Machine             I                     II              III                  total

Faulty              0.10                0.20        0.05

Prob                0.3333           0.3333    0.3334             1

Faulty*prob    0.03333         0.06666  0.16665         0.26664

Thus probability  that a produced pin will be faulty and it will be from the firstmachine

= 0.03333

6 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Is linear algebra the same as intermediate algebra?
    13·2 answers
  • Change the decimal 0.0112 to a fraction
    15·1 answer
  • What is the answer to x+1/2=5
    14·2 answers
  • Would somebody let me use their brainly so i can do work
    13·2 answers
  • How many 4/5 cup servings in 8 cups
    12·2 answers
  • GIVING BRAINLIEST PLSSSSS BE A GOD Jennifer is saving money to buy a bike. The bike costs $294. She has $107 saved, and each wee
    10·1 answer
  • Alyssa opens a savings account with $6. She saves $5 each week. The table Represents her account balance. Decide whether the tab
    14·2 answers
  • What 2 numbers have a product of -36 and a sum of 9
    13·1 answer
  • BRAINLYEST TO WHOEVER ANSWERS FAST
    12·1 answer
  • A survey was done of students in a high school to see if there was a connection between a student's hair color and her or his ey
    9·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!