Answer:
read below
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
the answer is m=-3n-5/2 or n=2m+5/6
Answer:
YES
Step-by-step explanation:
So how you can figure this out is you do the Distributive Property.
So it will be 12x^3+12y^2+6y^2+6.
The next thing you have to do is add together the ones that are similar which is 12y^2+6y^2 to get 18y^2.
Your answer is 12x^3+18y^2+6. So YES it can be factored into that form.
Answer:
A^32
Step-by-step explanation:
Done
