4 divided by 6 times 5 equals 3.333
Answer:
6in
Step-by-step explanation:
Using the pythagerous thereom,
10^2 = 8^2 + b^2
b^2 = 10^2-8^2
b^2 = 100-64
b^2 = 36
b = 6
<em>Feel free to mark this as brainliest :D</em>
Answer:
1.125
Step-by-step explanation:
1) First you have to turn it into an improper fraction
8*1 = 8. Add the numerator--> 8+1 = 9.
2) The improper fraction is 9/8
3) Divide 9 by 8
**Write this using long division
8 goes into 9 one time, so we will write one as our first digit
Carry down the 1 and the 0, 8 goes into 10 1 times so write 1.
And this point we have 1.1 above
Carry down the 2 and the 0, 8 goes into 20 2 times so write 2
At this point we have 1.12
Carry down the 4 and the 0, 8 goes into 40 5 times with no remainders so write 5 and end the division process.
Now we have 1.125 as our decimal for 9/8 which is equivalent to 1 1/8.
Use tide over run to help you find the answer
Hope that helps!!
