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Sloan [31]
2 years ago
8

Which angle is an x-intercept for the function y = cos(1) A.0 B.2 C. £ D. 2£

Mathematics
1 answer:
noname [10]2 years ago
3 0

Answer: C. \pi

=======================================================

Explanation:

The x intercept always occurs when y = 0.

Use the unit circle to determine that \cos(\theta) = 0 when \theta = \frac{\pi}{2} \text{ and } \theta = \frac{3\pi}{2}

So if x = \pi, then we have

y = \cos\left(\frac{1}{2}x\right)\\\\y = \cos\left(\frac{x}{2}\right)\\\\y = \cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\\\\y = 0\\\\

which shows us that (\pi, 0) is the location of one of the infinitely many x intercepts for this function.

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