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andrew-mc [135]
2 years ago
5

Answer for brainliest 25 X 1 = ;)

Mathematics
1 answer:
Alchen [17]2 years ago
3 0
The answer is 25. :))))

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CAN SOMEONE HELP DO #1 PLEASE
love history [14]

Answer:

  B.  $450

Step-by-step explanation:

The amount of commission is the commission rate (3%) times the amount of sales to which it is applied ($5000). Garrett's commission last week would be ...

  0.03 × $5000 = $150

He is also paid $300 each week in addition to his commission, so his total pay last week was ...

  pay = salary + commission

  pay = $300 +150 = $450

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2 years ago
Help<br> PleSe due now!!!!!
AveGali [126]

Answer:

1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

3/6 = 1/2

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3 years ago
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You take a quiz with 6 multiple choice questions. After you studied your estimated that you would have about an 80 % chance of g
Arada [10]

Answer:

1.15%

Step-by-step explanation:

To get the probability of m  independent events you multiply the individual probability of each event. In this case we have m independent events, each one with the same probability, therefore:

p^{m}

0.8^{20} = 1.15\%

This is a particlar scenario of binomial distribution problem. So the binomial distribution questions are about the number of success of m independent events, where every individual event has the same p probability. In the question we have 20 events and each event has a probability of 80%. The binomial distribution formula is:

\binom{n}{k} * p^{k} * (1-p)^{n-k}

n is the number of events

k is the number of success

p is the probability of each individual event

\binom{n}{k} is the binomial coefficient

the binomial coefficient allows to find the subsets of k elements in a set of n elements.  In this case there is only one subset possible since the only way to get 20 of 20 correct questions is to getting right all questions (for getting 19 of 20 questions there are many ways, for example getting the first question wrong and all the other questions right, or getting second questions wrong and all the other questions right, etc).

\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}

therefore, for this questions we have:

\frac{20!}{20!(20-20)!} * 0.8^{20} * (1-0.8)^{0} = 1.15\%

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3 years ago
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Not linear .........
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2 years ago
Gap sells jeans that cost $21.00 for a selling price of $29.95. The percent of markup based on cost is
9966 [12]
If Gap sells jeans that cost $21.00 for selling price of $29.95. The percent of markup based on cost is approximately 43%. The markup in price is exactly $8.95.
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3 years ago
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