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zlopas [31]
3 years ago
14

The magnetic flux through a coil of wire containing two loops changes at a constant rate from -58 wb to 38 wb in 0. 34 s. What i

s the emf induced in the coil?
Physics
1 answer:
german3 years ago
6 0

The emf induced in the coil is -5.65 V

<h3>Induced emf in coil</h3>

The induced emf in the coil is given by ε = -NΔΦ/Δt where

  • ΔΦ = change in magnetic flux Φ₂ - Φ₁ where
  • Φ₁ = initial magnetic flux = -58 Wb and
  • Φ₂ = final magnetic flux = 38 Wb and and
  • Δt = change in time = t₂ - t₁ where
  • t₁ = initial time = 0 s and
  • t₂ = final time = 34 sand
  • N = number of loops of coil = 2

Since ε = -NΔΦ/Δt

ε = -N(Φ₂ - Φ₁)/(t₂ - t₁)

Substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

ε = -N(Φ₂ - Φ₁)/(t₂ - t₁)

ε = -2(38 Wb - (-58 Wb))/(34 s - 0 s)

ε = -2(38 Wb + 58 Wb)/(34 s - 0 s)

ε = -2(96 Wb)/34 s

ε = -192 Wb/34 s

ε = -5.65 Wb/s

ε = -5.65 V

So, the emf induced in the coil is -5.65 V

Learn more about induced emf in coil here:

brainly.com/question/13051297

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ZanzabumX [31]

Answer:

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Since the pulley is smooth, the weight of Dwayne Johnson being transferred fully, and pulls the desk with a force of 1157.58 N. The frictional force of the desk is resisting this motion by a force of 370 N. Subtracting both forces we get the resultant force on the desk to be: 1157.58 - 370 = 787.58 N

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Finally, we can use the motion equation:

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here u = 0 m/s (since initial speed of the desk is 0)

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v^2 - 0 = 2 * 12.501 * 10

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Since the desk and Mr. Dwayne Johnson are connected by a taught rope, they are travelling at the same speed. Thus, Dwayne also travels at            15.812 m/s when the desk reaches the window.

5 0
3 years ago
How are mixtures essential to living and non living things on earth?
sertanlavr [38]
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7 0
4 years ago
a block of mass m slides along a frictionless track with speed vm. It collides with a stationary block of mass M. Find an expres
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Answer:

Part a) When collision is perfectly inelastic

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Explanation:

Part a)

As we know that collision is perfectly inelastic

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mv_m = (m + M)v

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v = \frac{mv_m}{m + M}

now we know that in order to complete the circle we will have

v = \sqrt{5Rg}

\frac{mv_m}{m + M} = \sqrt{5Rg}

now we have

v_m = \frac{m + M}{m} \sqrt{5Rg}

Part b)

Now we know that collision is perfectly elastic

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4 years ago
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Answer:

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