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sasho [114]
3 years ago
7

Why electromagnetic energy is renewable? Explain.

Physics
1 answer:
Vika [28.1K]3 years ago
7 0
It’s renewable because it dosnt run out
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Bianca sends her brother Phineas an e-mail to invite him to dinner. In this scenario, what is the channel according to Shannon's
dusya [7]
The channel is whatever was used to carry information from
one place to another, or from one person to another.
In this scenario, the channel is e-mail.
4 0
3 years ago
an object of mass m is rotating about a fixed axis with angular momentum l. its moment of inertia about this axis is i. what is
Tems11 [23]

The Kinetic energy would be 1/2IL².

<h3>What is Rotational Kinetic energy ?</h3>

  • Rotational energy also known as angular kinetic energy is defined as: The kinetic energy due to the rotation of an object and is part of its total kinetic energy. Rotational kinetic energy is directly proportional to the rotational inertia and the square of the magnitude of the angular velocity.

As we know linear Kinetic energy = 1/2mv²

 where m= mass and v= velocity.

Similarly rotational kinetic energy is given by = 1/2IL²

 where I- moment of inertia and L=angular momentum.

To know more about the Kinetic energy , visit:

brainly.com/question/29807121

#SPJ4

8 0
1 year ago
A single-turn circular loop of wire of radius 45 mm lies in a plane perpendicular to a spatially uniform magnetic field. During
Lina20 [59]

Answer:

Magnitude of induced emf is 0.00635 V

Explanation:

Radius of circular loop r = 45 mm = 0.045 m

Area of circular loop A=\pi r^2

A=3.14\times 0.045^2=0.00635m^2

Magnetic field is increases from 250 mT to 350 mT

Therefore change in magnetic field dB=250-350=100mT

Emf induced is given by

e=-N\frac{d\Phi }{dt}=-NA\frac{dB}{dt}

e=-0.00635\times \frac{100\times 10^{-3}}{0.10}=-0.00635V

Magnitude of induced emf is equal to 0.00635 V

7 0
3 years ago
Find :
Pepsi [2]

Answer:

Explanation:

b) Gravity reduces the initial upward velocity to zero in a time of

t = v/g = 40/10 = 4 s

a) h =  v₀t + ½gt² = 40(4) +  ½(-10)4² = 80 m

or

v² = u² + 2as

h = (0² - 40²) / 2(-10) = 80 m

8 0
3 years ago
An initially stationary object experiences an acceleration of 6 m/s2 for a time of 15 s. How far will it travel during that time
andrew-mc [135]

Answer:

The object will travel 675 m during that time.

Explanation:

A body moves with constant acceleration motion or uniformly accelerated rectilinear motion (u.a.r.m) when the path is a straight line, but the velocity is not necessarily constant because there is an acceleration.

In other words, a body performs a u.a.r.m when its path is a straight line and its acceleration is constant. This implies that the speed increases or decreases uniformly.

In this case, the position is calculated using the expression:

x = xo + vo*t + ½*a*t²

where:

  • x0 is the initial position.
  • v0 is the initial velocity.
  • a is the acceleration.
  • t is the time interval in which the motion is studied.

In this case:

  • x0= 0
  • v0= 0  because the object is initially stationary
  • a= 6 \frac{m}{s^{2} }
  • t= 15 s

Replacing:

x= 0 + 0*15 s + ½*6 \frac{m}{s^{2} }*(15s)²

Solving:

x=½*6 \frac{m}{s^{2} }*(15s)²

x=½*6 \frac{m}{s^{2} }*225 s²

x= 675 m

<u><em> The object will travel 675 m during that time.</em></u>

5 0
3 years ago
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