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nikdorinn [45]
2 years ago
11

If an object has an initial velocity of 2.0 m/s and its rate of change in velocity is 3.0 m/s2

Physics
1 answer:
erica [24]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

14m/s2

Explanation:

initial velocity=2m/s

final velocity =?

time=4s

acceleration=3.0m/s

v=u+at

v=(2)+(3*4)

v=14m/s

by substituting the values in the equation we get the value 14m/s.

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A truck traveling with an initial velocity of 22m/s comes to a stop in 17.32 secs. What is the acceleration of the truck?
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Explanation:

Given:

v₀ = 22 m/s

v = 0 m/s

t = 17.32 s

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v = at + v₀

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a = -1.270 m/s²

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A 100 kg roller coaster comes over the first hill at 2 m/sec (vo). The height of the first hill (h) is 20 meters. See roller dia
aleksandr82 [10.1K]

For the 100 kg roller coaster that comes over the first hill of height 20 meters at 2 m/s, we have:

1) The total energy for the roller coaster at the <u>initial point</u> is 19820 J

2) The potential energy at <u>point A</u> is 19620 J

3) The kinetic energy at <u>point B</u> is 10010 J

4) The potential energy at <u>point C</u> is zero

5) The kinetic energy at <u>point C</u> is 19820 J

6) The velocity of the roller coaster at <u>point C</u> is 19.91 m/s

1) The total energy for the roller coaster at the <u>initial point</u> can be found as follows:

E_{t} = KE_{i} + PE_{i}

Where:

KE: is the kinetic energy = (1/2)mv₀²

m: is the mass of the roller coaster = 100 kg

v₀: is the initial velocity = 2 m/s

PE: is the potential energy = mgh

g: is the acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m/s²

h: is the height = 20 m

The<em> total energy</em> is:

E_{t} = KE_{i} + PE_{i} = \frac{1}{2}mv_{0}^{2} + mgh = \frac{1}{2}*100 kg*(2 m/s)^{2} + 100 kg*9.81 m/s^{2}*20 m = 19820 J

Hence, the total energy for the roller coaster at the <u>initial point</u> is 19820 J.

   

2) The <em>potential energy</em> at point A is:

PE_{A} = mgh_{A} = 100 kg*9.81 m/s^{2}*20 m = 19620 J

Then, the potential energy at <u>point A</u> is 19620 J.

3) The <em>kinetic energy</em> at point B is the following:

KE_{A} + PE_{A} = KE_{B} + PE_{B}

KE_{B} = KE_{A} + PE_{A} - PE_{B}

Since

KE_{A} + PE_{A} = KE_{i} + PE_{i}

we have:

KE_{B} = KE_{i} + PE_{i} - PE_{B} =  19820 J - mgh_{B} = 19820 J - 100kg*9.81m/s^{2}*10 m = 10010 J

Hence, the kinetic energy at <u>point B</u> is 10010 J.

4) The <em>potential energy</em> at <u>point C</u> is zero because h = 0 meters.

PE_{C} = mgh = 100 kg*9.81 m/s^{2}*0 m = 0 J

5) The <em>kinetic energy</em> of the roller coaster at point C is:

KE_{i} + PE_{i} = KE_{C} + PE_{C}            

KE_{C} = KE_{i} + PE_{i} = 19820 J      

Therefore, the kinetic energy at <u>point C</u> is 19820 J.

6) The <em>velocity</em> of the roller coaster at point C is given by:

KE_{C} = \frac{1}{2}mv_{C}^{2}

v_{C} = \sqrt{\frac{2KE_{C}}{m}} = \sqrt{\frac{2*19820 J}{100 kg}} = 19.91 m/s

Hence, the velocity of the roller coaster at <u>point C</u> is 19.91 m/s.

Read more here:

brainly.com/question/21288807?referrer=searchResults

I hope it helps you!

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g Two masses are involved in a collision on an axis (one dimensional). One mass is six times the mass of the second. Both masses
statuscvo [17]

Answer:

v₁f = 0.5714 m/s   (→)

v₂f = 2.5714 m/s   (→)

e = 1  

It was a perfectly elastic collision.

Explanation:

m₁ = m

m₂ = 6m₁ = 6m

v₁i = 4 m/s

v₂i = 2 m/s

v₁f = ((m₁ – m₂) / (m₁ + m₂)) v₁i +  ((2m₂) / (m₁ + m₂)) v₂i

v₁f = ((m – 6m) / (m + 6m)) * (4) +  ((2*6m) / (m + 6m)) * (2)  

v₁f = 0.5714 m/s   (→)

v₂f = ((2m₁) / (m₁ + m₂)) v₁i +  ((m₂ – m₁) / (m₁ + m₂)) v₂i

v₂f = ((2m) / (m + 6m)) * (4) + ((6m -m) / (m + 6m)) * (2)

v₂f = 2.5714 m/s   (→)

e = - (v₁f - v₂f) / (v₁i - v₂i)   ⇒   e = - (0.5714 - 2.5714) / (4 - 2) = 1  

It was a perfectly elastic collision.

8 0
3 years ago
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