It is 8/-6 bcuz you go up 8 and then left 6 but it will be negative 6 bcuz its left
The correct given equation is:
v = [3 (h + 1)^2.5 + 580 h – 3] / 10 h
So to solve for the instantaneous velocity at t = 1, we
must set h = 0. However we cannot do that since h is in denominator and a
number divided by a denominator is infinite. Therefore we must set h to
something almost zero. In this case, h = 0.0000001, so that:
at t = 1
v = [3 (0.0000001 + 1)^2.5 + 580 (0.0000001) – 3] / 10 *
0.0000001
<span>v = 58.75 ft/s</span>
$19.04. If your mom gave you $14.28, and it only covered 3/4 of the cost, you have to first find 3/4 as a percentage, and then put it into a decimal. It would be 0.75. So then you have to divide 14.28÷0.75. It turns out to be $19.04.
Answer:
60
Step-by-step explanation:
The yellow and green angles form a right angle, so the measures of those combined will be 90 degrees.
90 - 30 = 60
Answer:
a. 5% of the employees will experience lost-time accidents in both years
b. 24% of the employees will suffer at least one lost-time accident over the two-year period
Step-by-step explanation:
a. What percentage of the employees will experience lost-time accidents in both years?
20% last year, of those who suffered last year, 25% during this year. So

5% of the employees will experience lost-time accidents in both years.
b. What percentage of the employees will suffer at least one lost-time accident over the two-year period?
5% during the two years.
10% during the current year. 25% of employees who had lost-time accidents last year will experience a lost-time accident during the current year.
So the 10% is composed of 5% during both years(25% of 20%) and 5% of the 80% who did not suffer during the first year.
First year yes, not on the second.
75% of 20%. So, total:

24% of the employees will suffer at least one lost-time accident over the two-year period