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antiseptic1488 [7]
2 years ago
13

Rewrite the expression as a single power with a negative exponent

Mathematics
1 answer:
goblinko [34]2 years ago
8 0

~\hspace{7em}\textit{negative exponents} \\\\ a^{-n} \implies \cfrac{1}{a^n} ~\hspace{4.5em} a^n\implies \cfrac{1}{a^{-n}} ~\hspace{4.5em} \cfrac{a^n}{a^m}\implies a^na^{-m}\implies a^{n-m} \\\\[-0.35em] ~\dotfill\\\\ \left(\cfrac{1}{3}\cdot \cfrac{1}{3}\cdot \cfrac{1}{3}\cdot \cfrac{1}{3} \right)^2\implies \left[ \left( \cfrac{1}{3} \right)^4 \right]^2\implies \left( \cfrac{1^4}{3^4} \right)^2 \\\\\\ \left( \cfrac{1^{4\cdot 2}}{3^{4\cdot 2}} \right) \implies \cfrac{1}{3^8} \implies 3^{-8}

let's recall that  

\begin{array}{llll} 1^1&=&1\\ 1^{10}&=&1\\ 1^{1,000}&=&1\\ 1^{1,000,000,000}&=&1\\ 1^{1,000,000,000,000}&=&1\\ \end{array}

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Approximately 85% of persons age 70 to 84 live in their own household and are income-qualified for home purchases.
miv72 [106K]

Answer:

The probability that exactly two of the four live in their own household and are income-qualified is  = .0975

Step-by-step explanation:

Given -

Approximately 85% of persons age 70 to 84 live in their own household and are income-qualified for home purchases.

Probability of sucess ( p ) = 85% =.85

Probability of failure ( q ) = 1 - .85 =.15

n = 4

From combination of n events taking r sucess we use binomial distribution

P(X = r) = \binom{n}{r}p^{r}q^{n-r}

where , r = 2

the probability that exactly two of the four live in their own household and are income-qualified is =

P(X = 2) = \binom{4}{2}0.85^{2}0.15^{4 - 2}

                = \frac{4!}{(2!)(2!)} \times 0.7225  \times .0225

                 = 6 \times 0.7225  \times .0225

                 = .0975

4 0
3 years ago
Last one I need help in will give BRAINLY (don’t send me links)
iren2701 [21]

Answer:

x=11

Step-by-step explanation:

4x+11=5x (angle adb and edf are the same)

11=5x-4x

11=x

x=11

if you want you can check by doing...

(14*11-29)+(5*11)=180

4 0
3 years ago
A jumbo chocolate bar with a rectangular shape measures 11 centimeters in​ length, 8 centimeters in​ width, and 3 centimeters in
sesenic [268]

11ce^3 nt^2 imrs, 8ce^3 nt^2 imrs, 3ce^3 nt^2 imrs, 0.2, 3ce^3 nt^2 imr, ce^3 nt^2 imrs

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3 years ago
6 pints 1cup =_____cups
Natasha2012 [34]

1 pint equals 2 cups. 6 x 2 = 12 plus the other cup (1) is 13

Answer:

13 cups  



4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What does x equal? 3(x-7)=138+3x
Arturiano [62]
3(x-7) = 138 + 3x      First multiply
3x-21 = 138 + 3x      subtract 3x from both sides 
-21 = 138            

This is a false statement because -21 does not equal to 138 so the answer is no solution.

Hope this helps! Please give me the brainliest answer if you like it! If you have further questions, please leave a comment or add me as a friend!
7 0
3 years ago
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