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skad [1K]
2 years ago
10

Which formula represents final velocity of an object with average acceleration?

Physics
2 answers:
zheka24 [161]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The equation v – = v 0 + v 2 v – = v 0 + v 2 is reflects the fact that when acceleration is constant, v – is just the simple average of the initial and final velocities.

Explanation:

hope this is it

Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]2 years ago
3 0

Explanation:

the equation v-=v0+v2-v-=v0+v2 is reflects the fact that when acceleration is constant,v- is just the simple areragevof the initial and final velocities

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In the aftermath of an intense earthquake, the earth as a whole "rings" with a period of 54 minutes.
lawyer [7]

The frequency of the oscillation in hertz is calculated to be 0.00031 Hz.

The frequency of a wave is defined as the number of cycles completed per second while the period refers to the time taken to complete a cycle. The frequency is the inverse of period.

So;

Period(T) = 54 minutes or 3240 seconds

Frequency (f) = T-1 = 1/T = 1/3240 seconds = 0.00031 Hz

Learn more: brainly.com/question/14588679

6 0
2 years ago
How long will it take a car to travel a distance of 1km if it has an average speed of 60kph​
beks73 [17]

Answer:

1÷60 h

time equals distance upon speed

6 0
3 years ago
A pickup truck is traveling down the highway at a steady speed of 30.1 m/s. The truck has a drag coefficient of 0.45 and a cross
Sav [38]

Answer:

The energy that the truck lose to air resistance per hour is 87.47MJ

Explanation:

To solve this exercise it is necessary to compile the concepts of kinetic energy because of the drag force given in aerodynamic bodies. According to the theory we know that the drag force is defined by

F_D=\frac{1}{2}\rhoC_dAV^2

Our values are:

V=30.1m/s

C_d=0.45

A=3.3m^2

\rho=1.2kg/m^3

Replacing,

F_D=\frac{1}{2}(1.2)(0.45)(3.3)(30.1)^2

F_D=807.25N

We need calculate now the energy lost through a time T, then,

W = F_D d

But we know that d is equal to

d=vt

Where

v is the velocity and t the time. However the time is given in seconds but for this problem we need the time in hours, so,

W=(807.25N)(30.1m/s)(3600s/1hr)

W=87.47*10^6J (per hour)

Therefore the energy that the truck lose to air resistance per hour is 87.47MJ

4 0
3 years ago
Rearrange the equation to solve for the permeability of free space (μ0). Remember that the slope is the ratio of magnetic field
IRINA_888 [86]

Complete Question

The complete question is shown on the first uploaded image

Compare the percent error between your value and the accepted value of 1.26 times 10-6 T · m/A. (Use the accepted value given to three significant figures in your calculation.). 100% % error = %

Answer:

The permeability of free space is \mu_0 = 1.32*10^{-6} \ Tm/A

The percentage error is  % error = 5.25%

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

            The slope is  s= 3.9\  G/A , and

Generally  1 \ gauss =  10^{-4 } tesla

               So  s = 3.9 *10^ {-4} T /A

From the relation given in the question

                        \mu_0 = \frac{2R}{N} [\frac{B}{I} ]

 Where R is the radius of the coil  =\frac{Diameter \ of \ coil }{2} = 0.017m

             N is the number of loops of the coil = 10

Now from the question we are told that

                  s = \frac{B}{I}

substituting into the equation above

               \mu_0 = \frac{2R }{N} s

Substituting values

              \mu_0= \frac{2 * 0.017}{10 } * 3.9*10^{-4}

                   = 1.326 *10^ {-6} \ Tm/A

Generally the % error is mathematically represented as

                    %error = \frac{Measured \  value - accepted \ value}{accepted \  value } *100

Given that the accepted value is \mu_o_ {acc} = 1.26 *10 ^{-6} \ T \cdot m /A

      Hence substituting values

                      %error  = \frac{(1.326-1.26)*10^{-6}}{1.26 *10 ^ {-6}} *100

                                  = 5.24

6 0
4 years ago
this stationary wave is what we call the first harmonic of the first normal mode of the system. in units of l, the length of the
pentagon [3]

First harmonic of a closed pipe is determined as velocity, v, to four times length (4L), F₀ v/4L.

<h3>First harmonic of a closed pipe</h3>

The first harmonic of a closed pipe is the fundamental frequency of the closed of the closed pipe.

L = λ/4

where;

  • L is the length of the pipe
  • λ is the wavelength of sound

λ = 4L

But, v = F₀λ

v = F₀(4L)

F₀ = v/4L

where;

  • F₀ is the first harmonic
  • v is speed of sound

Thus, first harmonic of a closed pipe is determined as velocity, v, to four times length (4L), F₀ v/4L.

Learn more about fundamental frequency here:  brainly.com/question/1967686

#SPJ11

<h3 />
6 0
2 years ago
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