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Verizon [17]
3 years ago
10

How many electrons in Cu​

Physics
1 answer:
boyakko [2]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:29 electrons

Explanation: If you look on a periodic table, the atomic number is the amount of electrons it has.

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To understand how to find the velocities of objects after a collision.
trasher [3.6K]

There are some information missing on Part D: Let the mass of object 1 be m and the mass of object 2 be 3m. If the collision is perfectly inelastic, what are the velocities of the two objects after the collision? Give the velocity v_1 of object one, followed by object v_2 of object two, separated by a comma. Express each velocity in terms of v.

Answer: Part A: v_1 = 0; v_2 = v

Part B: v_1 = v_2 = \frac{v}{2}

Part C: v_1 = \frac{v}{3}; v_2 = \frac{4v}{3}

Part D: v_1 = v_2 = \frac{v}{4}

Explanation: In elastic collisions, there no loss of kinetic energy and momentum is conserved. Momentum is determined as p = m.v and kinetic energy as K = \frac{1}{2}m.v^{2}

Conserved means that the amount of initial momentum is equal to the amount of final momentum:

m_{1}.v_{1i} + m_{2}.v_{2i} = m_{1}.v_{1f} + m_{2}.v_{2f}

No loss of energy means that initial kinietc energy is the same as the final kinetic energy:

\frac{1}{2}(m_{1}.v_{1i} + m_{2}.v_{2i}) = \frac{1}{2} (m_{1}.v_{1f} + m_{2}.v_{2f}  )

To determine the final velocities of each object, there are 2 variables and two equations, so working those equations, the result is:

v_{2f} = \frac{2.m_{1} } {m_{1} + m_{2} }.v_{1i}  + \frac{(m_{2} - m_{1})}{m_{1} + m_{2} } . v_{2i}

v_{1f} = \frac{m_{2} - m_{1} }{m_{1} + m_{2} } . v_{1i} + \frac{2.m_{2} }{m_{1} + m_{2} } .v_{2i}

For all the collisions, object 2 is static, i.e. v_{2i} = 0

<u>Part A</u>: Both objects have the same mass (m), v_{1i} = v and collision is elastic:

v_1 = \frac{m_{2} - m_{1}}{m_{1} + m_{2} } . v_{1i}

v_1 = 0

v_2 = \frac{2.m_{1} }{m_{1} + m_{2}}.v_{1i}

v_2 = \frac{2.m}{m+m}.v

v_2 = v

When the masses are the same and there is an object at rest, the object in movement stops and the object at rest has the same same velocity as the object who hit it.

<u>Part B</u>: Same mass but collision is inelastic: An inelastic collision means that after it happens, the two objects has the same final velocity, then:

m_{1}.v_{1i} + m_{2}.v_{2i} = m_{1}.v_{1f} + m_{2}.v_{2f}

m_{1}.v_{1i} = (m_{1}+m_{2}).v_{f}

v_{f} =  \frac{m_{1}.v_{1i}}{m_{1} + m_{2} }

v_1 = v_2 = \frac{m.v}{m+m}

v_1 = v_2 = \frac{v}{2}

<u>Part C:</u> Object 1 is 2m, object 2 is m and elastic collision:

v_1 = \frac{m_{2} - m_{1}}{m_{1} + m_{2} } . v_{1i}

v_1 = \frac{2m - m}{2m + m } . v

v_1 = \frac{v}{3}

v_2 = \frac{2.m_{1} }{m_{1} + m_{2}}.v_{1i}

v_2 = \frac{2.2m}{2m+m}.v

v_2 = \frac{4v}{3}

<u>Part D</u>: Object 1 is m, object is 3m and collision is inelastic:

v_1 = v_2 = v_{f} =  \frac{m_{1}.v_{1i}}{m_{1} + m_{2} }

v_1 = v_2 = \frac{m}{m+3m}.v

v_1 = v_2 = \frac{v}{4}

5 0
4 years ago
Need help on this please
marin [14]
The answer is D, the amount of energy stays the same.
3 0
3 years ago
12. your friend with great excitement tells you about his newest idea to solve the energy crisis: he wants to use an electromoto
mixas84 [53]
I would tell him, in the kindest, most gentle way I could manage,
to fahgeddaboudit. 

The total amount of energy doesn't change.  Energy is never created,
and it never disappears.  If you have some energy, then it had to come
from somewhere, and if you used some energy, then it had to go
somewhere. 

You can never get more energy out of the electromotor than you put into it,
 and in the real world, you can't even get THAT much out, because some
of it is always used on the way through.

Pour yourself a cold glass of soda, then look up "Perpetual Motion" or
"Free Energy" on the internet, relax, and enjoy the show.  They are all
fakes.  They may not all be intentionally meant to fool you, but they are
all impossible.
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You hear the sound from a tuning fork vibrating at 483 Hz. You then hear the sound from a second tuning fork vibrating at 512 Hz
AleksAgata [21]

Answer:

tgggggg

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
A wave x meters long has a speed of y meters per second. The frequency of the wave is
Sergio [31]
The correct answer is (b.) y/x hertz. That is because the formula to get the frequency is f =  v / w. The following values (v=y meters / second; wavelength = x meters) must be substituted to the equation, which leaves you y/x hertz.
6 0
3 years ago
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