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Yuliya22 [10]
1 year ago
6

Fourty mins after 4:40 is fourty mins before…

Mathematics
2 answers:
Nimfa-mama [501]1 year ago
8 0

Answer:

The correct answer is B: 6:00

Step-by-step explanation:

Each hour is an interval of 60 minutes, so first in order to calculate 40 minutes after 4:40, you need to add 20 minutes in order to make 4:40 into 5:00. Then you add the remaining 20 minutes and you'll get that 40 minutes after 4:40 is 5:20. Since we are trying to find the time that 5:20 is 40 minutes before, you must add an additional 40 minutes to that time, which equals 6:00. Therefore, fourty minutes after 4:40 is fourty minutes before 6:00.

marissa [1.9K]1 year ago
7 0

Answer:

B.   6:00

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 60 minutes in one hour.

To calculate 40 minutes after 4:40, separate 40 minutes into two lots of 20 minutes.

⇒ 4:40 + 20 minutes = 5:00

⇒ 5:00 + 20 minutes = 5:20

Therefore, 40 minutes after 4:40 is 5:20

To calculate the time that 5:20 is 40 minutes before, add 40 minutes to 5:20

⇒ 5:20 + 40 minutes = 6:00

Therefore, the solution is option B. 6:00

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Which is a factor of 21?<br> 4<br> 3<br> 6<br> 5
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3

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1 \times 21 = 21

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2 years ago
At what rate per annum ci will RS 2000 amount to RS 2315.35 in 3 years
Mashutka [201]

<u>ANSWER: </u>

Rate per annum at which CI will amount from RS 2000 to RS 2315.35 in 3 years is 5%

<u>SOLUTION: </u>

Given,  

P = RS 2000

C.I = RS 2315.35

T = 3 years

We need to find the rate per annum. i.e. R = ?

We know that,  

When interest is compound Annually:

Amount $=\mathrm{P}\left(1+\frac{\mathrm{R}}{100}\right)^{n}$

Where p = principal amount

r = rate of interest

n = number of years

$2315.35=2000 \times\left(1+\frac{R}{100}\right)^{3}$

$\left(1+\frac{R}{100}\right)^{3}=\frac{2315.35}{2000}$

$\left(1+\frac{R}{100}\right)^{3}=1.157$

$1+\frac{R}{100}=\sqrt[3]{1.157}$

$1+\frac{R}{100}=1.0500$

$\frac{R}{100}=1.05-1$

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3 years ago
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