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nydimaria [60]
2 years ago
15

A car and a truck, starting from rest, have the same acceleration, but the truck moves twice the length of time. Compared with t

he car, the truck will travel
Physics
1 answer:
zhenek [66]2 years ago
6 0

Compared with the car, the truck will travel four times as far.

The initial velocity of car and truck, u = 0

The acceleration of both the truck and car = a

The length of time for the acceleration = t

Let the time the truck accelerated be 2t

<h3>How to calculate the distance traveled by car and truck?</h3>

The distance traveled by car is calculated as;

s = ut + ¹/₂at²

s₁ = 0(t) + ¹/₂at²

s₁ = ¹/₂at²

The distance traveled by truck

s = ut + ¹/₂at²

s₂ = 0(2t) + ¹/₂a (2t)²

s₂ =  ¹/₂a x 4t²

s₂ = 4 (¹/₂at²)

s₂ = 4(s₁)

We can conclude that the Truck distance is four times the car distance.

Therefore, Compared with the car, the truck will travel four times as far.

Learn more about motion here;

brainly.com/question/17113985

#SPJ1

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solniwko [45]

Answer:

Explanation:

average speed more than 25.0m/s.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
For a standard production car, the highest road-tested acceleration ever reported occurred in 1993, when a Ford RS200 Evolution
Ann [662]

Answer:

a = 8.06 m/s²

Explanation:

The acceleration of this car can be found using the first equation of motion:

v_f = v_i + at\\\\a = \frac{v_f-v_i}{t}

where,

a = acceleration = ?

vf = final speed = 26.8 m/s

vi = initial speed = 0 m/s

t = time = 3.323 s

Therefore,

a = \frac{26.8\ m/s-0\ m/s}{3.323\ s}

<u>a = 8.06 m/s²</u>

3 0
3 years ago
Please help, I do not understand
Anettt [7]
I think the key here is to be exquisitely careful at all times, and
any time we make any move, keep our units with it.

We're given two angular speeds, and we need to solve for a time.

Outer (slower) planet:
Angular speed =  ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/ω seconds .

Inner (faster) planet:
Angular speed =  2ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/2ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/2ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/2ω sec = π/ω seconds.

So far so good.  We have the outer planet taking 2π/ω seconds for one
complete revolution, and the inner planet doing it in only π/ω seconds ...
half the time for double the angular speed.  Perfect !

At this point, I know what I'm thinking, but it's hard to explain.
I'm pretty sure that the planets are in line on the same side whenever the
total elapsed time is something like a common multiple of their periods.
What I mean is:

They're in line, SOMEwhere on the circles, when

     (a fraction of one orbit) = (the same fraction of the other orbit)    
AND
     the total elapsed time is a common multiple of their periods.

Wait !  Ignore all of that.  I'm doing a good job of confusing myself, and
probably you too.  It may be simpler than that.  (I hope so.)  Throw away
those last few paragraphs.

The planets are in line again as soon as the faster one has 'lapped'
the slower one ... gone around one more time.  
So, however many of the longer period have passed, ONE MORE
of the shorter period have passed.  We're just looking for the Least
Common Multiple of the two periods.

      K (2π/ω seconds)  =  (K+1) (π/ω seconds)

                     2Kπ/ω   =    Kπ/ω + π/ω

Subtract  Kπ/ω :    Kπ/ω = π/ω

Multiply by  ω/π :      K  =  1

(Now I have a feeling that I have just finished re-inventing the wheel.)

And there we have it:

     In the time it takes the slower planet to revolve once,
     the faster planet revolves twice, and catches up with it.
    
     It will be  2π/ω  seconds before the planets line up again.
    
     When they do, they are again in the same position as shown
     in the drawing.

To describe it another way . . . 

     When Kanye has completed its first revolution ...

     Bieber has made it halfway around.

     Bieber is crawling the rest of the way to the starting point while ...

     Kanye is doing another complete revolution.

     Kanye laps Bieber just as they both reach the starting point ...

     Bieber for the first time, Kanye for the second time.


You're welcome.  The generous bounty of 5 points is very gracious,
and is appreciated.  The warm cloudy water and green breadcrust
are also delicious.
5 0
3 years ago
water in a cup and a kettle can have the same temperature even though the quantities are different . give reasons​
jekas [21]

Answer:

The reason is because both are exposed to a virtually infinite heat sink, due to the virtually infinite mass  and of the surrounding environment, compared to the sizes of either the cup or the kettle such that the equilibrium temperature, T_{(equilibrium)} reached is the same for both the cup and the kettle as given by the relation;

\infty M_{(environ)} \times  c_{(environ)} \times (T_2 - T_1) = m_{1} \times  c_{(water)} \times (T_3 - T_2) + m_{2} \times  c_{(water)} \times (T_4 - T_2)

Due to the large heat sink, T₂ - T₁ ≈ 0 such that the temperature of the kettle and that of the cup will both cool to the temperature of the environment

Explanation:

4 0
4 years ago
If the man pushes with a force of 2000N and friction is 500N, what is the resultant force?
alexandr402 [8]

Answer:

Explanation:

If the force of 2000 N is directed towards the right and the friction is directed towards the left, the 2000 N force is positive and the other is negative. To find the resultant force:

2000 - 500 = 1500 N to the right

3 0
3 years ago
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