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Allisa [31]
2 years ago
11

If the mass of the sun is 2x, at least one planet will fall into the habitable zone if I place a planet in orbits___, ____, ____

, and ____, and all planets will orbit the sun successfully.
Pleas help this is Flvs comprehensive science class
6.01 please please help
Physics
1 answer:
nalin [4]2 years ago
6 0

So, the complete sentence is If the mass of the sun is 2x, at least one planet will fall into the habitable zone if I place a planet in orbits<u> 84, 1, </u>and <u>5</u>, and all planets will orbit the sun successfully for the best conditions.

When the mass of the sun is larger, Earth moves around the sun at a faster pace and When the mass of the sun is smaller, Earth moves around the sun at a slower pace.

When Earth is closer to the sun, its orbit becomes faster and When Earth is farther from the sun, its orbit becomes slower.

When Earth is closer to the sun, there will be a hotter climate. A little movement that takes one closer to the sun could lead to a huge impact, as the sun is very hot.

So, it can be concluded that If the mass of the sun is 2x, at least one planet will fall into the habitable zone if I place a planet in orbits<u> 84, 1, </u>and <u>5</u>, and all planets will orbit the sun successfully for the best conditions.

Learn more about Sun here:

brainly.com/question/15837114

#SPJ10

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If the IMA of a machine is 2 and the effort force is 50 newtons, then the force applied to the resistance is _____. 48 N 50 N 25
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IMA stands for ideal mechanical advantage, which is the theoretical force amplification factor on an ideal mechanical device free of friction, deformations, etc.


If the applied force (effort) is 50N, then the force applied to the resistance is multiplied by the IMA=2 to get 100N.

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3 years ago
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Winds blowing toward the east are called easterlies.<br><br><br> True or False
eimsori [14]

Answer: False

Explanation:

Winds are named for the cardinal direction they blow from.  Hence, a wind that <em>"blows towards the east"</em>, logically should <u>come from the west </u>and is called a <em>"west wind"</em>.

In thise sense, one of the best examples of this type of wind are the <em>Westerlies</em>, which are are prevailing winds that blow from the west at midlatitudes and have the characteristic that are stronger during winter and weaker during summer.

Therefore, the statement is false.

6 0
3 years ago
Due to the wave nature of light, light shined on a single slit will produce a diffraction pattern? Green light (520 nm) is shine
TiliK225 [7]

Answer:

Yes, it will produce a diffraction pattern.

a. 3.9 mm b. 1.95 mm

Explanation:

The light shined from a single slit will produce a diffraction pattern because,  the wavefront act as wavelets which generates its own wave according to Huygens principle. This therefore causes the diffraction pattern.

Given

wavelength of green light, λ = 520 nm = 520 × 10⁻⁹ m = 5.20 × 10⁻⁷ m

width of slit, d = 0.440 mm = 0.44 × 10⁻³ m = 4.4 × 10⁻⁴ m

Distance of slit from central maximum , D = 1.65 m

Distance of first minimum from central maximum, y = ?

a. The relationship between the slit width and wavelength is given by [tex} dsinθ = mλ [/tex]where d = slit width, θ = angular distance from central maximum, λ = wavelength of light and m = ±1, ±2, ±3...

The relationship between y and D is given by tanθ = y/D

Since θ is small, sinθ ≈ θ ≈ tanθ

so, dθ = mλ ⇒ θ = mλ/d = y/D

Therefore, y = mλD/d

Now, for the first minimum above the slit, m = +1 and for the first minimum below the slit, m = -1. So, y₁ =  λD/d and y₋₁ =  -λD/d. So, the width of the central maximum Δy is the difference between the first minima below and above the central maximum. So, Δy = y₁ - y₋₁ = λD/d -(-λD/d) = 2λD/d

Substituting the values from above, Δy= 2 × 5.20 × 10⁻⁷ × 1.65/4.4 × 10⁻⁴ =  3900 × 10⁻⁶ m = 3.9 × 10⁻³ m = 3.9 mm

b. The first order fringe is the fringe located between the first minimum and the second minimum. From dsinθ = mλ and tanθ = y/D when θ is small, sinθ ≈ θ ≈ tanθ. So, y = mλD/d. Let m= 1 and m=2 be the first and second minima respectively. So,y₁ =  λD/d and y₂ =  2λD/d. The difference Δy₁ = y₂ - y₁ is the width of the first order fringe. Therefore, Δy₁ = 2λD/d - λD/d= λD/d. Substituting the values from above, we have

λD/d= 5.20 × 10⁻⁷ × 1.65/4.4 × 10⁻⁴= 1.95 × 10⁻³ m = 1.95 mm

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