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1 year ago

To qualify as a pass-through entity for U.S. corporate income tax, a REIT must be all of the following EXCEPT

1 answer:

3 0

To qualify as a pass-through entity for U.S. corporate income tax, a REIT must be all of the following EXCEPT : <u>Jointly owned by less than 100 persons.</u>

<h3>What Is a Real Estate Investment Trust (REIT)?</h3>

A real estate investment trust (REIT) is a company that owns, operates, or finances income-generating real estate.

Modeled after mutual funds, REITs pool the capital of numerous investors. This makes it possible for individual investors to earn dividends from real estate investments—without having to buy, manage, or finance any properties themselves.

To qualify as a REIT, a company must comply with certain provisions in the Internal Revenue Code (IRC). These requirements include to primarily own income-generating real estate for the long term and distribute income to shareholders.

Specifically, a company must meet the following requirements to qualify as a REIT:

Invest at least 75% of total assets in real estate, cash, or U.S. Treasuries
Derive at least 75% of gross income from rents, interest on mortgages that finance real property, or real estate sales
Pay a minimum of 90% of taxable income in the form of shareholder dividends each year
Be an entity that's taxable as a corporation
Be managed by a board of directors or trustees
Have at least 100 shareholders after its first year of existence
Have no more than 50% of its shares held by five or fewer individuals

Therefore, we can conclude that the correct option is D.

Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full question was:

To qualify as a pass-through entity for U.S. corporate income tax, a REIT must be all of the following EXCEPT

a.structured as a corporation, trust, or association.

b.have transferable shares or certificates of interest.

c.managed by a board of directors or trustees.

d.jointly owned by less than 100 persons.

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In the long run, profits in a monopolistically competitive market are zero because: a. of government regulations. b. of collusio

zvonat [6]

Answer:

c. firms are free to enter and exit the market.

Explanation:

A monopolistically competitive market is a market in which there are a lot of organizations that sell products that are similar and it tends to be easy to enter and leave the industry. Because it is easy for a company to enter the market and there is a lot of competition, in the long run the economic profit is zero. According to this, the answer is that in the long run, profits in a monopolistically competitive market are zero because firms are free to enter and exit the market.

The other options are not right because a monopolistically competitive market has zero profits because of its low entry barriers and amount of competitors not because of government regulations or an illegal agreement between organizations to control competition. Also, in a monopolistically competitive market the products are similar.

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3 years ago

Why might an economist favor activist policies in developed countries and laissez-faire policies in developing countries

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Answer:

One of the main economic issues in developing countries is rampant corruption or extremely inefficient government institutions. This means that less government intervention is always better in developing countries.

On the other hand, in developed countries, the checks and balances system exists within government institutions and even though corruption may exist, it is not as widely spread. The most severe economic problem in developed countries is inequality and huge economic actors. This is why activist policies may be necessary in developed countries, at least in certain economic sectors.

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3 years ago

The Rivoli Company has no debt outstanding, and its financial position is given by the following data:

anzhelika [568]

Answer:

Intrinsic value is $45

Explanation:

The starting point to determining Rivoli Company intrinsic value is to compute the earning after tax as shown below:

Earnings after tax=earning before tax*(1-tax rate)

earnings before tax is $600,000

tax rate

earnings after tax=$600,000*(1-0.25)

=$600,000*0.75

=$450,000

Then we need to compute earnings per share;

Earnings per shares=earnings after tax/weighted average number of shares

=$450,000/100,000

=$4.5

Intrinsic value=earnings per share/cost of equity

cost of equity is 10%

intrinsic value=$4.5/10%

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3 years ago

Marketing communicators must be good at ________ messages that take into account how the target audience ________ them.

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peanut butter and jelly are complements. if there is a decrease in the price of jelly, producer surplus in the peanut butter mar

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If the price of jelly decreases, the demand for peanut butter, a complementary good to jelly, will increase. The increase in the demand for peanut butter will cause the price of peanut butter to rise.

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