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2 years ago

Find the inverse function of

Mathematics

1 answer:

shtirl [24]2 years ago

3 0

Answer:

$f(x) = 20x - 4 \\ substitute \: y \: for \: f(x) \\ y = 20x - 4 \\ interchange \: x \: and \: y \\ x = 20y - 4 \\ swap \: the \: sides \: of \: the \: equation \\ 20y - 4 = x \\ move \: the \: constant \: to \: the \: right \: hand \\ 20y = x + 4 \\ divide \: both \: sides \: by \: 20 \\ y = \frac{1}{20} x + \frac{1}{5} \\ substitute \: f {}^{ - 1} (x) \: for \: y \\ f {}^{ - 1} (x) = \frac{1}{20} x + \frac{1}{5}$

The domain of the inverse of a relation is the same as the range of the original relation. In other words, the y-values of the relation are the x-values of the inverse.

Thus, domain of f(x): x∈R = range of f¯¹(x)

and range of f(x): x∈R =domain of f¯¹(x)

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3 years ago

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3 years ago

A construction company is considering submitting bids for contracts of three different projects. The company estimates that it h

julsineya [31]

Answer:

a. $P(x)=\frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}*p^{x}*(1-p)^{n-x}\\$

b. $E(x) = 0.3$

c. $S(x)=0.5196$

d. $E=5,000$

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the company won x bids follows a binomial distribution because we have n identical and independent experiments with a probability p of success and (1-p) of fail.

So, the PMF of X is equal to:

$P(x)=\frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}*p^{x}*(1-p)^{n-x}\\$

Where p is 0.1 and it is the chance of winning. Additionally, n is 3 and it is the number of bids. So the PMF of X is:

$P(x)=\frac{3!}{x!(3-x)!}*0.1^{x}*(1-0.1)^{n-x}\\$

For binomial distribution:

$E(x)=np\\S(x)=\sqrt{np(1-p)}$

Therefore, the company can expect to win 0.3 bids and it is calculated as:

$E(x) = np = 3*0.1 = 0.3$

Additionally, the standard deviation of the number of bids won is:

$S(x)=\sqrt{np(1-p)}=\sqrt{3(0.1)(1-0.1)}=0.5196$

Finally, the probability to won 1, 2 or 3 bids is equal to:

$P(1)=\frac{3!}{1!(3-1)!}*0.1^{1}*(1-0.1)^{3-1}=0.243\\P(2)=\frac{3!}{2!(3-2)!}*0.1^{2}*(1-0.1)^{3-2}=0.027\\P(3)=\frac{3!}{3!(3-3)!}*0.1^{3}*(1-0.1)^{3-3}=0.001$

So, the expected profit for the company is equal to:

$E=-10,000+50,000(0.243)+100,000(0.027)+150,000(0.001)\\E=5,000$

Because there is a probability of 0.243 to win one bid and it will produce 50,000 of income, there is a probability of 0.027 to win 2 bids and it will produce 100,000 of income and there is a probability of 0.001 to win 3 bids and it will produce 150,000 of income.

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3 years ago

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podryga [215]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago