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Nitella [24]
2 years ago
12

Measure the length of this segment in inches.

Mathematics
1 answer:
sergiy2304 [10]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

3 \frac{3}{4} inches

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julio bought 4 pounds of carrot sticks and 3 pounds of celery sticks for the school potluck. he had 6 bowls for serving vegetabl
Ksju [112]

Answer:2

Step-by-step explanation: 4 times 3 equals 12 and 12 divided by 6 is 2

7 0
2 years ago
0.4 divided by 0.08 show your work
Sergeeva-Olga [200]

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

Since we have not instructed to follow any kind of rule dividing, we can write in any form. Let's calculate it using fraction

0.4:0.08=\frac{0.4}{0.08}

We can multiply both the nominator and denominator with 100

\frac{0.4}{0.08}=\frac{40}{8}=5

The answer is 5.


We can also solve it as a division of fractions:

\frac{4}{10} : \frac{8}{100} = \frac{4}{10} * \frac{100}{8} = \frac{10}{2} = 5

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please help me with these. God bless you
Digiron [165]
Counting all of the lines, there is About 17
6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A muffin recipe, which yields 12 muffins, calls for 2/3 cup of milk for every 1 3/4 cups of flour. The same recipe calls for 1/4
djyliett [7]

Answer:

4\dfrac{3}{8} cups of flour

Step-by-step explanation:

A muffin recipe, which yields 12 muffins, calls for 2/3 cup of milk for every 1 3/4 cups of flour.

Then this recipe, which yields one muffin, calls for

\dfrac{2}{3}:12=\dfrac{2}{3}\cdot \dfrac{1}{12}=\dfrac{1}{18}

cup of milk for every

1\dfrac{3}{4}:12=\dfrac{7}{4}\cdot \dfrac{1}{12}=\dfrac{7}{48}

cups of flour.

Thus,

this recipe, which yields a batch of 30 muffins, calls for

\dfrac{1}{18}\cdot 30=\dfrac{5}{3}=1\dfrac{2}{3}

cups of milk for every

\dfrac{7}{48}\cdot 30=\dfrac{210}{48}=\dfrac{35}{8}=4\dfrac{3}{8}

cups of flour.

4 0
3 years ago
Rewrite the expressions in each pair so that they have the same base. c) (1 /2)^2x and (1/ 4)^x - 1
just olya [345]
I'm not completely sure but this is what I would do.
evaluate <span>(1/ 4)^x - 1 </span>as is. But change the (1 /2)^2x to (2/4)^2x. This way both fractions have the same denominator and in this sense, the same base. The 2/4 base still evaluates into 1/2 so nothing, mathematically, is being broken here.
7 0
3 years ago
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