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olasank [31]
3 years ago
15

The area of a parallelogram with the height of 6 meters is a hundred twenty six square meters what is the base length of the par

allelogram
Mathematics
2 answers:
Anastaziya [24]3 years ago
6 0
That's easy, it is 126 divided by 6 equals 21 meters. cause the formula is base times height = area so you do the opposite of it which is base = area divide by height
AnnyKZ [126]3 years ago
5 0
Just divide. 120÷6=21. So the Answer is 21. Hoped I helped. :)
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tester [92]

Answer: V = l  w  h

Step-by-step explanation:

Hi, to answer this question we have to apply the formula for the volume of a rectangular prism.

Volume of a rectangular prism (V) = Length x Width x Height

Replacing with the values given:

V = l w h

All values are multiplied (didn’t use x as a multiplication symbol to avoid confusion)  

Feel free to ask for more if needed or if you did not understand something.

7 0
3 years ago
Someone tell me if I’m right
otez555 [7]

Answer:

Yes you are correct

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
2 years ago
A roll of steel is manufactured on a processing line. The anticipated number of defects in a 10-foot segment of this roll is two
Vikentia [17]

Answer:

the probability of no defects in 10 feet of steel = 0.1353

Step-by-step explanation:

GIven that:

A roll of steel is manufactured on a processing line. The anticipated number of defects in a 10-foot segment of this roll is two.

Let consider β to be the average value for defecting

So;

β = 2

Assuming Y to be the random variable which signifies the anticipated number of defects in a 10-foot segment of this roll.

Thus, y follows a poisson distribution as number of defect is infinite with the average value of β = 2

i.e

Y \sim P( \beta = 2)

the probability mass function can be represented as follows:

\mathtt{P(y) = \dfrac{e^{- \beta} \ \beta^ \ y}{y!}}

where;

y =  0,1,2,3 ...

Hence,  the probability of no defects in 10 feet of steel

y = 0

\mathtt{P(y =0) = \dfrac{e^{- 2} \ 2^ \ 0}{0!}}

\mathtt{P(y =0) = \dfrac{0.1353  \times 1}{1}}

P(y =0) = 0.1353

4 0
3 years ago
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kiruha [24]

Answer:

2.16 * (10^-5).

Step-by-step explanation:

5 = -log H+

5 = log (1 / H+)

1/ H+ = 10^5

H+ = 10^-5

In a similar fashion  the other brand has H+ of 10^-4.5.

So the difference in hydrogen ion concentration =  10^(-4.5) - 10^(-5)

= 2.16 * (10^-5).

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Find the mode of the data set: 37, 42, 39, 44, 47, 38, 42, 45, 49, 35
Snezhnost [94]

Answer:

42

Step-by-step explanation:

mode is the most common number

6 0
4 years ago
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