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yuradex [85]
1 year ago
8

Is 40 mph possible to run?

Physics
1 answer:
Bogdan [553]1 year ago
8 0

NO

The likelihood of reaching 40 miles per hour is very slim. Several factors are related to how quickly somebody can run, which is why only one person has ever run 28 miles per hour.Catch a sprinter smashing a speed record and they look like they could keep up with a car chase. 40 MPH: The fastest speed humans can run. The current fastest human in the world is Usain Bolt, who can run at nearly 28 miles per hour.Steve in Davis, Calif. So far, the fastest anyone has run is about 27½ miles per hour, a speed reached (briefly) by sprinter Usain Bolt just after the midpoint of his world-record 100-meter dash in 2009.

Find more about run :-brainly.com/question/17889385?referrer=searchResults

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The forklift exerts a 1,500.0 N force on the box and moves it 3.00 m forward to the stack. How much work does the forklift do ag
allochka39001 [22]
In order to get the propoerty of work you need to use the following formula
 <span>work = force times distance
</span>replacing data you will get:
W = (1.500) (3)
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The answer should be in NM. So it will be 4500 NM againts the force of gravity
4 0
3 years ago
If the phase of the vibrating sources was changed so that they were vibrating completely out of phase, what effect would this ha
Over [174]

Answer:

There would be complete destructive interference.

Explanation:

This is because since the waves are completely out of phase, the phase difference is half wavelength, that is the phase angle is 180°. The vibrating sources are 180° out of phase with each other.

Since this is the case, the crest of the one source meets the trough of the other, this causes the resultant vibrational wave to cancel out, thus producing a destructive interference pattern.

Since the vibrating sources are completely out of phase, every point they meet is completely out of phase, so the resultant interference pattern would produce a complete destructive interference pattern of no wave.

4 0
3 years ago
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Arte-miy333 [17]

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Explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
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DerKrebs [107]

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A 1430 kg is moving at 25.6 m/s when a force is applied, in the direction of the cars motion. The car speeds up to 31.3 m/s. If
vladimir1956 [14]

The car accelerates with magnitude <em>a</em> such that

31.3 m/s = 25.6 m/s + <em>a</em> (5.4 s)

→   <em>a</em> = (31.3 m/s - 25.6 m/s) / (5.4 s) ≈ 1.056 m/s²

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