Probability of success (showing up) = 1-0.05=0.95 is constant and known.
Trials are Bernoulli (show or no show).
Trials are independent and random (assumed from context)
Number of trials is known, n=160.
All being satisfied, we can then model with binomial distribution, where
P(x)=C(n,x)p^x*(1-p)^(n-x)
where C(n,x)=n!/(x!(n-x)!)
Here we look for
P(X<=155)=P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)+...+P(X=155)
=0.9061461 (using technology, or add up 156 values calculated, or read from binomial distribution table).
Alternatively, the normal approximation can be used, when n is large.
mean=np=160*0.95=152
standard deviation=sqrt(np(1-p))=2.75681
Apply continuity correction, x=155.5
Z=(155.5-152)/2.75681=1.26958
P(z<=Z)=0.89788 (read from normal distribution tables)
Error=(0.89788-0.9061461)*100%=-0.83%
The approximation is considered good considering p=0.95 is quite skewed, but compensated by n>>50.
Answer:
x = 20
Step-by-step explanation:
Diagonals bisect so you can set the two equal to each other
3x + 3 = 6x - 57
Solve:
3 = 3x - 57
60 = 3x
20 = x
We want to find an inequality that says how many outfits Samantha could buy.
The solution is x ≤ 2
We know that she has $600 to spend.
She already spent:
- $392.25 in her bicycle
- 3 bicycle reflectors for $7.01 each, so the total is: 3*$7.01 = $21.03
- $34.96 in a pair of gloves.
The total amount she already spent is:
$392.25 + $21.03 + $34.96 = $448.24
The <u>amount of money that she has left</u> is:
$600 - $448.24 = $151.76
Ok, now we know that each outfit costs $75.88
So the price of x of these will be x times $75.88
price = $75.88*x
This must be equal or smaller than the amount of money that she has left:
$75.88*x ≤ $151.76
x ≤ $151.76/$75.88 = 2
x ≤ 2
This is the inequality that represents the number of outfits that she can buy.
If you want to learn more, you can read:
brainly.com/question/20383699
Answer:the 2nd one is the answer it's easy I just did it :
Answer:
1
6
4
10
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18
8
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12
4
6
8
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16
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26
Step-by-step explanation: