The correct answer is A. In the direction of applied force. This is because acceleration occurs n the direction of applied force according to Newtons second law of motion which states that the acceleration of a body is directly proportional to the applied force and takes place in the direction of force.
The mechanical advantage of a machine is the ratio of the force produced by the machine to the force applied to it. Therefore, we may calculate the applied force using:
Mechanical advantage = force by machine / force applied
6 = 2 / force applied
Force applied = 1/3
Thus, the distance that the effort must move will be 1/3 inch
If the two waves have the SAME FREQUENCY and are exactly
out of phase (180° apart), then the resultant wave will have the
same frequency and an amplitude of 1 unit.
If the two waves do not have the SAME FREQUENCY, then their
relative phase is meaningless.
The answer is B because it literally says it right there, and I don't wanna make it impossibly confusing for a middle school student, lol.
