The answer is 74 i think so
Answer:
yes
Step-by-step explanation:
there is a single x value for every y value
Replace <span><span>f<span>(x)</span></span><span>f<span>(x)</span></span></span> with <span>yy</span>.<span><span>y=3x−6</span><span>y=3x-6</span></span>Interchange the variables.<span><span>x=3y−6</span><span>x=3y-6</span></span>Solve for <span>yy</span>..<span><span>y=2+<span>x3</span></span><span>y=2+<span>x3</span></span></span>Solve for <span>yy</span> and replace with <span><span><span>f<span>−1</span></span><span>(x)</span></span><span><span>f<span>-1</span></span><span>(x)</span></span></span>.
<span><span>f<span>−1</span></span><span>(x)</span>=2+<span><span>x3</span></span></span>
From the given information we can assume that (-1; 2) point is the same as x=-1 and y=2.
The easiest way to solve this problem is to put -1 and 2 instead of x and y
in this way you will get answer C
2 - 2 = (3/2)*(1 - 1) which means that 0 = 0 and this answer is correct.
Answer: C
