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serg [7]
3 years ago
14

Someone got this paper?

Physics
1 answer:
Snezhnost [94]3 years ago
6 0
First question (upper left):
1/Req = 1/12 + 1/24 = 1/8
Req = 8 ohms
Voltage is equal through different resistors, and V1 = V2 = 24 V.
Current varies through parallel resistors: I1 = V1/R1 = 24/12 = 2 A. I2 = 24/24 = 1 A.

Second question (middle left):
V1 = V2 = 6 V (parallel circuits)
I1 = 2 A, I2 = 1 A, IT = 2+1 = 3 A.
R1 = V1/I1 = 6/2 = 3 ohms, R2 = 6/1 = 6 ohms, 1/Req = 1/2 + 1/1, Req = 2/3 ohms

Third question (bottom left):
V1 = V2 = 12 V
IT = 3 A, meaning Req = V/It = 12 V/3 A = 4 ohms
1/Req = 1/R1 + 1/R2, 1/4 = 1/12 + 1/R2, R2 = 6 ohms
I1 = V/R1 = 1 A, I2 = V/R2 = 2 A

Fourth question (top right):
1/Req = 1/20 + 1/20, Req = 10 ohms
IT = 4 A, so VT = IT(Req) = 4*10 = 40 V
Parallel circuits, so V1 = V2 = VT = 40 V
Since the resistors are identical, the current is split evenly between both: I1 = I2 = IT/2 = 2 A.

Fifth question (middle right):
1/Req = 1/5 + 1/20 + 1/4, Req = 2 ohms
IT = VT/Req = 40 V/2 ohms = 20 A
V1 = V2 = V3 = 40 V
The current of 20 A will be divided proportionally according to the resistances of 5, 20, and 4, the factors will be 5/(5+20+4), 20/(5+20+4), and 4/(5+20+4), which are 5/29, 20/29, and 4/29.
I1 = 20(5/29) = 100/29 A
I2 = 20(20/29) = 400/29 A
I3 = 20(4/29) = 80/29 A

Sixth question (bottom right):
V2 = 30V is given, but since these are parallel circuits, V1 = VT = 30 V.
Then I1 = V1/R1 = 30 V/10 ohms = 3 A.
I2 = 30 V/15 ohms = 2 A.
IT = 3 + 2 = 5 A
1/Req = 1/10 + 1/15, Req = 6 ohms
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An aluminum bar 600mm long, with diameter 40mm, has a hole drilled in the center of the bar. The hole is 40mm in diameter and 10
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<em>1.228 x </em>10^{-6}<em> mm </em>

<em></em>

Explanation:

diameter of aluminium bar D = 40 mm  

diameter of hole d = 30 mm

compressive Load F = 180 kN = 180 x 10^{3} N

modulus of elasticity E = 85 GN/m^2  = 85 x 10^{9} Pa

length of bar L = 600 mm

length of hole = 100 mm

true length of bar = 600 - 100 = 500 mm

area of the bar A = \frac{\pi D^{2} }{4} =  \frac{3.142* 40^{2} }{4} = 1256.8 mm^2

area of hole a = \frac{\pi(D^{2} - d^{2}) }{4} = \frac{3.142*(40^{2} - 30^{2})}{4} = 549.85 mm^2

Total contraction of the bar = \frac{F*L}{AE} + \frac{Fl}{aE}

total contraction = \frac{F}{E} * (\frac{L}{A} +\frac{l}{a})

==> \frac{180*10^{3}}{85*10^{9}} *( \frac{500}{1256.8} + \frac{100}{549.85}) = <em>1.228 x </em>10^{-6}<em> mm </em>

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An above ground swimming pool of 30 ft diameter and 5 ft depth is to be filled from a garden hose (smooth interior) of length 10
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This question involves the concepts of dynamic pressure, volume flow rate, and flow speed.

It will take "5.1 hours" to fill the pool.

First, we will use the formula for the dynamic pressure to find out the flow speed of water:

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where,

v = flow speed = ?

P = Dynamic Pressure = 55 psi(\frac{6894.76\ Pa}{1\ psi}) = 379212 Pa

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Therefore,

v=\sqrt{\frac{2(379212\ Pa)}{1000\ kg/m^3}}

v = 27.54 m/s

Now, we will use the formula for volume flow rate of water coming from the hose to find out the time taken by the pool to be filled:

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t = time to fill the pool = ?

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V = [\frac{\pi (9.144\ m)^2}{4}][1.524\ m] = 100.1 m³

Therefore,

t = \frac{(100.1\ m^3)}{(1.98\ x\ 10^{-4}\ m^2)(27.54\ m/s)}\\\\

<u>t = 18353.5 s = 305.9 min = 5.1 hours</u>

Learn more about dynamic pressure here:

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