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Softa [21]
3 years ago
7

1.

Chemistry
2 answers:
Tresset [83]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

A sample of water boils and releases gas.

Explanation:

Physical change is a change where no any chemical reaction takes place only the chemical composition of matter changes. It is a reversible process .

Burning of newspaper, rusting of iron, plant changes carbon dioxide and water into sugar (photosynthesis) are  chemical reaction and irreversible process.

ivann1987 [24]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:  A sample of water boils and releases gas.

Explanation: When water boils it evaportates but it is still water so this is a psysical change

Hope this helps !

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MA= output force/ input force
MA= 100N/20N
MA= 50
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Sugar can be removed from a sugar water solution through dialysis.
Fantom [35]

Answer:

false

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An electrically neutral atom bears what trait?
zhenek [66]

C) It contains the same number of electrons and protons.

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Of the following, ________ should have the highest critical temperature. Of the following, ________ should have the highest crit
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Answer:

H2

Explanation:

Critical temperature is the temperature above which gas cannot be liquefied, regardless of the pressure applied.

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5 0
3 years ago
When the paramagnetic [co(cn)6] 4– ion is oxidized to [co(cn)6] 3– , the ion becomes diamagnetic. however, when the paramagnetic
S_A_V [24]
Answer:  
Basically, paramagnetic and diamagnetic refer to the way a chemical species interacts with a magnetic field. More specifically, it refers to whether or not a chemical species has any unpaired electrons or not. 
 A diamagnetic species has no unpaired electrons, while a paramagnetic species has one or more unpaired electrons. 
 Now, I won't go into too much detail about crystal field theory in general, since I assume that you're familiar with it. 
 So, you're dealing with the hexafluorocobaltate(III) ion, [CoF6]3â’, and the hexacyanocobaltate(III) ion, [Co(CN)6]3â’. 
 You know that [CoF6]3â’ is paramagnetic and that [Co(CN)6]3â’ is diamagnetic, which means that you're going to have to determine why the former ion has unpaired electrons and the latter does not. 
 Both complex ions contain the cobalt(III) cation, Co3+, which has the following electron configuration 
  Co3+:1s22s22p63s23p63d6 
 For an isolated cobalt(III) cation, all these five 3d-orbitals are degenerate. The thing to remember now is that the position of the ligand on the spectrochemical series will determine how these d-orbtals will split. 
 More specifically, you can say that 
  a strong field ligand will produce a more significant splitting energy, Δ  a weak field ligand will produce a less significant splitting energy, Δ 
 Now, the spectrochemical series looks like this 
 http://chemedu.pu.edu.tw/genchem/delement/9.htmhttp://chemedu.pu.edu.tw/genchem/delement/9.htm 
 Notice that the cyanide ion, CNâ’, is higher on the spectrochemical series than the fluoride ion, Fâ’. This means that the cyanide ion ligands will cause a more significant energy gap between the eg and t2g orbitals when compared with the fluoride ion ligands. 
 http://wps.prenhall.com/wps/media/objects/3313/3393071/blb2405.htmlhttp://wps.prenhall.com/wps/media... 
 In the case of the hexafluorocobaltate(III) ion, the splitting energy is smaller than the electron pairing energy, and so it is energetically favorable to promote two electrons from the t2g orbitals to the eg orbitals → a high spin complex will be formed. 
 This will ensure that the hexafluorocobaltate(III) ion will have unpaired electrons, and thus be paramagnetic. 
 On the other hand, in the case of the hexacyanocobaltate(III) ion, the splitting energy is higher than the electron pairing energy, and so it is energetically favorable to pair up those four electrons in the t2g orbitals → a low spin complex is formed. 
 Since it has no unpaired electrons, the hexacyanocobaltate(III) ion will be diamagnetic.
6 0
3 years ago
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