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3 years ago

What are the benefits of doing business in other countries?

Business

1 answer:

umka2103 [35]3 years ago

6 0

some business give better pay or that when they do pay you can be worth more if they bring it back to the u.s

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Materials used by the Instrument Division of Ziegler Inc. are currently purchased from outside suppliers at a cost of $1,350 per

Sergio039 [100]

Answer:

(a) $33750000 (b) $11250000 (c) $22500000

Explanation:

Solution

(a) How much would Ziegler Inc. total income of operating increase.

Now,

Units * (Cost of purchased from outside supplier - Variable cost)

Thus,

75000 * ($1350 - $900) = $33750000

(b) How much would the Instrument Division's operating income increase

Now,

The Units * (Cost of purchased from outside supplier - Transfer Price)

So,

75000 units * ($1350 - $1200) = $11250000

Now,

Units * (Transfer Price - Variable cost)

75000 units * ($1200 - $900) = $22500000

3 0

3 years ago

Alpha Company is looking at two different capital structures, one an all-equity firm and the other a levered firm with $4.6 m

Aleks [24]

Answer:

The break-even EBIT using EPS is $1,288,000.

Explanation:

the break-even EBIT using EPS is the EBIT that will brings EPS under two different capital structure equal.

Denot X is the EBIT.

* We have:

+ EPS in all-equity firm = X/460,000

+ EPS in levered firm = ( X - interest rate)/230,000 = ( X - 4,600,000 x 14%)/230,000 = (X - 644,000) / 230,000.

* We have the equation:

X/460,000 = (X-644,000)/230,000 <=> X/460,000 = 2.8 <=> X = $1,288,000.

So, the break-even EBIT using EPS is $1,288,000.

8 0

3 years ago

Zoe runs a flower shop. She recently made some changes so that one employee answers phones and completes the order and payment p

ankoles [38]

Answer: E. Task identity

Explanation:

Task identity is the degree/extent to which an employee execute an entire, recognizable piece of work

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

According to the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), a capital budgeting project that has a beta equal to zero should be evaluat

lara [203]

Answer:

a. True

Explanation:

from the CAPM formula we can derive the statemeent as true.

$Ke= r_f + \beta (r_m-r_f)$

risk free = 0.05

market rate = 0.12

premium market = (market rate - risk free) 0.07

beta(non diversifiable risk) = 0

$Ke= 0.05 + 0 (0.07)$

Ke 0.05000

As the beta multiplies the difference between the market rate and risk-free rate a beta of zero will nulify the second part of the equation leaving only the risk-free rate. This means the portfolio is not expose to volatility

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3 years ago

A poll asked adults in a certain country whether immigration was a good thing or a bad thing for the country. out of 10871087 r

Lubov Fominskaja [6]

A

395395/10871087 x 100%= 3.64% of people said it was a good thing

7 0

3 years ago