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horsena [70]
4 years ago
11

Which vector below goes from (0,0) to (4,1)?

Physics
1 answer:
Lesechka [4]4 years ago
8 0

Explanation:

Please attach the figure next to your question in order to help you.. Wish u the best and Have a great Day. Good Luck!

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Hold a spoon such that the water will hit the back of the spoon. The handle of the spoon will be horizontal. Turn on the water,
antoniya [11.8K]

This is an experiment that explains the Bernoulli principle. According to this principle, at the bottom of the spoon, there will be a reduction in pressure.

<h3>Explanation of the Bernoulli principle</h3>

So the pressure at the bottom of the spoon reduces because the velocity of the water is larger and the height of the column of water is smaller at this part.

So the spoon is attracted to the water at the point of lowest pressure because objects gravitate to low-pressure points.

Learn more about the Bernoulli Principle at:

brainly.com/question/24623919

6 0
2 years ago
A cruise ship is moving at constant speed through the water. The vacationers on the ship are eager to arrive at their next desti
MArishka [77]

Answer: 1. higher than it was before they started running

Explanation: As the vacationers run towards the back(stern) of the ship the exerting more pressure against the pressure exerted by the wave supporting the moving ship,the pressure exerted on the moving ship will be increased, leading to a slight increase in the speed of the ship compared to the speed before they started running towards the back(stern) of the ship.

6 0
3 years ago
When the k. E of
Ierofanga [76]

\sqrt{2}Answer:

KE2 = 2 KE1

1/2 M V2^2 = 2 * (1/2 M V1^2)

V2^2 = 2 V1^2

V2 = \sqrt{2} V1

Since momentum = M V  the momentum increases by \sqrt{2}

8 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Two particles oscillate in simple harmonic motion along a common straight-line segment of length 1.0 m. Each particle has a peri
igor_vitrenko [27]

Answer:

a) the particles are <em>0.217 m </em>apart

b) <em>the particles are moving in the same direction</em>.

Explanation:

a) The amplitude of the oscillations is A/2 and the period of each particle is

T = 1.5 s however, they differ by a phase of π/6 rad. Let the phase of the first particle be zero so that the phase of the second particle is π/6. So we can write the coordinates of each of the particles as,

x₁ = A/2 cos(ωt)

x₂ = A/2 cos(ωt + π/6)

we can write the angular frequency ω, as

ω = 2π / T

so,

x₁ = A/2 cos(2π / T)

x₂ = A/2 cos(2π / T + π/6)

Thus, the coordinates of the particles at t = 0.45 s are,

x₁ = A/2 cos((2π × 0.45) / 1.5)) = -0.155 A

x₂ = A/2 cos((2π × 0.45) / 1.5) + π/6) = -0.372 A

Their separation at that time is, therefore,

Δx = x₁ - x₂

    = -0.155 A + 0.372 A

    = 0.217 A

since A = 1 m

Thus,

<em>Δx  = 0.217 m</em>

<em></em>

<em></em>

b) In order to find their directions, we must take the derivatives at t = 0.45 s.

Therefore,

v₁ = dx₁ / dt

   = (-πA / T) sin(2πt / T)

   = -(π(1) / 1.5) sin(2π(0.45) / 1.5)

   = -1.99

and,

v₂ = dx₂ / dt

   = (-πA / T) sin((2πt / T) + π/6)

   = -(π(1) / 1.5) sin((2π(0.45) / 1.5) + π/6)

   = -1.40

Since both v₁ and v₂ are negative, this shows that <em>the particles are moving in the same direction</em>.

6 0
3 years ago
I WILL MARK YOU THE BRAINLIEST NO LINKS
statuscvo [17]

Answer:

it becomes a gas

Explanation:

the matter expands, turning into steam, a gas.

4 0
3 years ago
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