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erik [133]
3 years ago
15

Would 50% of a negative number be greater in value or less in value than the number itself? Give an example as part of your expl

anation.
Im a bit confused, How could 50% of a negative number be greater or less in value?
Mathematics
2 answers:
Andrew [12]3 years ago
8 0
Greater value because -30 divided in half is -15
Cerrena [4.2K]3 years ago
5 0
It would be greater than the original value think of (-) #s like debts that need to be payed off and if you get a friend to pay the debt with you then you each have to pay less than you would alone however b/cus the #s are negative the closer they are to zero the larger the number is 
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scoundrel [369]

Answer:

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Part b) see the explanation

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f(d)=2,165.43\ sec

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Step-by-step explanation:

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