Ask question

Ask question

All categories

3 years ago

13

Explain why electromagnetic wave is transverse wave and not a compressional wave. ...?

1 answer:

tiny-mole [99]3 years ago

5 0

An electromagnetic , transverse, wave is a wave that goes up and down, such as light that does not need a medium to travel
While compressional, longitudinal wave such as sound require a medium to travel and can be compressed

hope this helps

You might be interested in

How does the earth orbit the sun?

scoray [572]

Answer:

The Sun's gravity pulls on the planets, just as Earth's gravity pulls down anything that is not held up by some other force and keeps you and me on the ground.

Explanation:

Hope that helps

6 0

3 years ago

2. Moving ocean water exerts a force of 375 N on a boat, causing the boat to move a distance of 34.7 m in 8.34 s. What power doe

sasho [114]

1.56 kW , working shown in photo

8 0

4 years ago

Cheetahs, the fastest of the great cats, can reach 50.0 miles/hour in 2.22 s starting from rest. Assuming that they have constan

elena55 [62]

Answer:

$10.07m/s^2$

Explanation:

Information we have:

velocities:

initial velocity: $v_{i}=0mph$ (starts from rest)

final velocity: $v_{f}=50mph$

time: $t=2.22s$

Since we need the answer in $m/s^2$ , we nees to convert the speed to meters per second:

$v_{f}=\frac{50miles}{1hour}(\frac{1hour}{3,600s} )(\frac{1609.34meters}{1mile} ) \\\\v_{f}=\frac{50*1609.34}{3600} m/s\\\\v_{f}=22.35m/s$

We find the acceleration with the following formula:

$a=\frac{v_{f}-v_{i}}{t}$

substituting the known values:

$a=\frac{22.35m/s-0m/s}{2.22s}\\ \\a=10.07m/s^2$

the acceleration is 10.07 $m/s^2$

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Can someone answer this question?<br><br><br><br><br><br><br> {For me: question 48}

qaws [65]

0.000000218 = 2 x 10^ -8

4 0

3 years ago

The smallest separation resolvable by a microscope is of the order of magnitude of the wavelength used. What energy electrons wo

hjlf

Answer: a) for 150 Angstroms 6.63 *10^-3 eV; b) for 5 Angstroms 6.02 eV

Explanation: To solve this problem we have to use the relationship given by De Broglie as:

λ =p/h where p is the momentum and h the Planck constant

if we consider the energy given by acceleration tube for the electrons given by: E: e ΔV so is equal to kinetic energy of electrons p^2/2m

Finally we have:

eΔV=p^2/2m= h^2/(2*m*λ^2)

replacing we obtained the above values.

6 0

3 years ago