Answer:



Step-by-step explanation:
Given
--- 8 friends
--- proportion that one-time fling
This question is an illustration of binomial probability, and it is represented as:

Solving (a): P(x = 0) --- None has done one time fling




Solving (b): 
To do this, we make use of compliment rule:

Rewrite as:



Solving (c):
--- Not more than 2 has one time fling
This is calculated as:

We have:







So:



Answer:
3%
Step-by-step explanation:
First find the difference between the total payment and what the payment would have been prior to to the 20 days late fee. Divide that number by the amount of days overdue (20) to find the cost of each day overdue. Divide that number of what each day overdue is by the cost of the bill prior to overdue fees. Move the decimal two places to the right.
Answer:
E: 2.00 + 0.75 [ 2r]
Step-by-step explanation:
r represents the number of miles. For each 1/2 mile the taxi will charge and extra free of $0.75. Then, for each mile, the taxi will charge $0.75*2. For example:
For a trip of 1 mile the taxi will charge:
$2.00+$0.75*2
For a trip of 2 miles, the taxi will charge:
$2.00+0.75*4
For a trip of 10 miles, the taxi will charge:
$2.00+$0.75*20
Notice that the variable fee (the one that depends on the number of miles) is $0.75 times the double of miles. In each case the number of miles is multiplied by two. Then the correct answer is E: 2.00 + 0.75 [ 2r]
The answer 280,000 because 4 is closer to 0
Convert all fractions to have the same denominator.
To convert, we must find the least common multiple of the two denominators of the fractions:
Multiples of 4: {4,8,12,16,20}
Multiples of 5: {5,10,15,20}
The least common multiple of 4 and 5 is 20.
Multiply the fractions by a number that will result in the denominator being 20:


The equation should now look like this:

Subtract both sides by 8/20 to get w by itself:


The value of w is 7/20.