Answer:
1716
Step-by-step explanation:
We can use nCr equation to find this
n=13
r=7
Answer:
Though it may vary, it's going closer to 0.5 as long as we enlarge our sample.
Step-by-step explanation:
1) Since a coin has heads and tails, then a sample proportion of 40 we can simulate it using some applets.
2) Here are the most common outcomes, as long as we continue on flipping coins.

If we continue enlarging our sample (80, 120,160...) the probability goes closer to 0.5
This shows: the theoretical probability goes closer and closer to the experimental probability of heads and tails

Answer:
The integral is equal to
for an arbitrary constant C.
Step-by-step explanation:
a) If
then
so the integral becomes
. (the constant of integration is actually 5C, but this doesn't affect the result when taking derivatives, so we still denote it by C)
b) In this case
hence
. We rewrite the integral as
.
c) We use the trigonometric identity
is part b). The value of the integral is
. which coincides with part a)
Note that we just replaced 5+C by C. This is because we are asked for an indefinite integral. Each value of C defines a unique antiderivative, but we are not interested in specific values of C as this integral is the family of all antiderivatives. Part a) and b) don't coincide for specific values of C (they would if we were working with a definite integral), but they do represent the same family of functions.
Answer:
#3. d = -10.25
Step-by-step explanation:
#3. d = -6.5 + -3.75