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3 years ago

Whole note minus 1 half notes minus 2 quarter notes

Mathematics

2 answers:

Lapatulllka [165]3 years ago

8 0

1 - 1/2 - 2/4 = 0
A whole minus a half equals half minus another half (2/4) equals 0

Lilit [14]3 years ago

8 0

Hey there! :)

Assuming that we're speaking about musical notes, then we know that a whole note = 4 beats

So, we know that :

** whole note = 4 beats **

** half note = 2 beats **

**quarter note = 1 beat **

So, we are given the equation :

whole note - 1 half note - 2 quarter notes.

Plug in what we know.

(4) - (2) - (1) - (1)

Simplify.

2 - 1 - 1

1 - 1

So, our answer is 0 beats!

~hope this helped~

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P(x)=2x^3-11x^2+ax-40 if x+4 is a factor of this polynomial what is the value of a

Vika [28.1K]

Answer:

a = -86.

Step-by-step explanation:

By the Factor Theorem, if x + 4 is a factor then P(-4) = 0, so:

P(-4) = 2(-4)^3 - 11(-4)^2 + a(-4)- 40 = 0

-128 - 176 - 4a - 40 = 0

-4a = 128 +176 + 40

-4a = 344

a = -86.

3 0

3 years ago

Diego said that the awnser to the question "How many groups of 5/6 are in 1?" Is 6/5 or 1 1/5.Do you agree with his statement? E

slamgirl [31]

Answer:

Diego is correct.

He has correctly divided 1 in groups of $\frac{5}{6}$ .

Step-by-step explanation:

The question 'How many groups of 5/6 are in 1?' means that we need to divided 1 into groups of $\\frac{5}{6}$ .

When we form groups from a given total, we divided the total by the size of the group.

If we are dividing $N$ number of people in groups of $x$ number of people, then the expression to find the number of groups formed can be given as:

⇒ $\frac{N}{x}$

For this question the data given is:

$N=1$

$x=\frac{5}{6}$

So, the number of groups formed can be given as:

⇒ $\frac{1}{\frac{5}{6}}$

When divisor is a fraction, then we multiply the reciprocal of the divisor with the dividend.

⇒ $1\times\frac{6}{5}$

⇒ $\frac{6}{5}$

In order to convert fraction to mixed number we will divide numerator with denominator and then write the quotient as whole number, remainder as numerator and the denominator remains as it is.

On dividing 6 by 5, the quotient =1 and remainder =1. Thus the mized number is:

⇒ $1\frac{1}{5}$

Thus, there are $\frac{6}{5}$ or $1\frac{1}{5}$ groups in 1. This matches with Diego's answer and hence he is correct.

3 0

3 years ago

Consider two forces of 17 and 42 pounds both acting in the horizontal direction on a single object. find the resultant force act

lys-0071 [83]

The forces have a magnitude of 59 pounds, and their direction angles are zero.

<h3>What is the magnitude of force?</h3>

The total amount of forces exerted on an object is referred to as the magnitude of force. The strength of the force increases when all the forces are pulling in the same direction. The force's strength reduces when forces are exerted on an item from different angles.
When two forces operating on a body in opposite directions along the same line of action are equal in magnitude, they cancel one another out. When two forces operating on a body in opposite directions along the same line of action are equal in magnitude, they cancel one another out.
According to this formula, the amount of net force acting on an item is equal to the mass times the acceleration of the object.
Magnitude is a term that refers to size or importance. The depth of the Grand Canyon serves as an illustration of magnitude. The scope of the hunger crisis in the world serves as an illustration of magnitude. A measurement of the energy released by an earthquake, as shown on the Richter scale (geology).

Two forces of 17 and 42 pounds act horizontally on an object.

i.e

F1 = 17 pounds

F2 = 42 pounds

As the magnitude of the force represents the sum of all the forces

The direction is the same

Magnitude : 17 + 42 = 59 pounds

The Direction angles : 0

As they have the same direction so angle will be 0.

The forces have a magnitude of 59 pounds, and their direction angles are zero.

To learn more about the Magnitude of forces and Direction angles of forces, refer to:

brainly.com/question/14584426