Ask question

Ask question

All categories

3 years ago

10

A 69 kg driver gets into an empty taptap to start the day's work. The springs compress 2×10−2 m . What is the effective spring c

onstant of the spring system in the taptap? Enter the spring constant numerically in newtons per meter using two significant figures.

1 answer:

natulia [17]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

$3.4\cdot 10^4 N/m$

Explanation:

The spring system in the taptap obey's Hooke's law, which states that:

$F=kx$

where

F is the magnitude of the force applied

k is the spring constant

x is the compression/stretching of the spring

In this problem:

- The force applied is the weight of the driver of mass m = 69 kg, so

$F=mg=(69 kg)(9.8 m/s^2)=676.2 N$

- The compression of the spring is

$x=2\cdot 10^{-2} m=0.02 m$

So, the spring constant is

$k=\frac{F}{x}=\frac{676.2 N}{0.02 m}=3.4\cdot 10^4 N/m$

You might be interested in

Which formula is used to calculate the mass of an object if the force and acceleration are known? m = Fa m = m = m = F – a

SOVA2 [1]

I'm pretty sure it is m = Fa

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The frequency of a physical pendulum comprising a nonuniform rod of mass 1.15 kg pivoted at one end is observed to be 0.658 Hz.

S_A_V [24]

Answer:

The rotational inertia of the pendulum around its pivot point is $0.280\,kg\cdot m^{2}$ .

Explanation:

The angular frequency of a physical pendulum is measured by the following expression:

$\omega = \sqrt{\frac{m\cdot g \cdot d}{I_{o}} }$

Where:

$\omega$ - Angular frequency, measured in radians per second.

$m$ - Mass of the physical pendulum, measured in kilograms.

$g$ - Gravitational constant, measured in meters per square second.

$d$ - Straight line distance between the center of mass and the pivot point of the pendulum, measured in meters.

$I_{O}$ - Moment of inertia with respect to pivot point, measured in $kg\cdot m^{2}$ .

In addition, frequency and angular frequency are both related by the following formula:

$\omega =2\pi\cdot f$

Where:

$f$ - Frequency, measured in hertz.

If $f = 0.658\,hz$ , then angular frequency of the physical pendulum is:

$\omega = 2\pi \cdot (0.658\,hz)$

$\omega = 4.134\,\frac{rad}{s}$

From the formula for the physical pendulum's angular frequency, the moment of inertia is therefore cleared:

$\omega^{2} = \frac{m\cdot g \cdot d}{I_{o}}$

$I_{o} = \frac{m\cdot g \cdot d}{\omega^{2}}$

Given that $m = 1.15\,kg$ , $g = 9.807\,\frac{m}{s^{2}}$ , $d = 0.425\,m$ and $\omega = 4.134\,\frac{rad}{s}$ , the moment of inertia associated with the physical pendulum is:

$I_{o} = \frac{(1.15\,kg)\cdot \left(9.807\,\frac{m}{s^{2}} \right)\cdot (0.425\,m)}{\left(4.134\,\frac{rad}{s} \right)^{2}}$

$I_{o} = 0.280\,kg\cdot m^{2}$

The rotational inertia of the pendulum around its pivot point is $0.280\,kg\cdot m^{2}$ .

8 0

2 years ago

A charged particle accelerated to a velocity v enters the chamber of a mass spectrometer. The particle's velocity is perpendicul

gladu [14]

Answer:

Circle

Explanation:

When a charged particle is in motion in a region with magnetic field, the particle experiences a force whose magnitude is given by

$F=qvB sin \theta$

where

q is the charge

v is the velocity of the particle

B is the strength of the magnetic field

$\theta$ is the angle between the directions of v and B

In this problem, the velocity of the particle is perpendicular to the magnetic field, so

$\theta=90^{\circ}$

and the formula reduces to

$F=qvB$

Also, the direction of this force is perpendicular to the direction of motion of the particle. This means that as the charge moves in the region of the magnetic field, the force acting on it acts as a centripetal force: therefore, the particle will start moving by unifom circular motion, with constant speed (because the magnetic force does no work on the particle, since it is perpendicular to the direction of motion).

So, the path of the particle will be a circle.

4 0

3 years ago

At what water depth will a deep-water wave with a wavelength of 40 meters begin to "feel bottom"? 5 meters 15 meters 20 meters 1

ella [17]

The answer is 20 meters would be the water depth started to feel bottom. This is half of the wavelength. The reason behind this is the wave travels half or the partial of the wavelength underneath the surface. For that reason that is where the wave would be starting to feel the ground.

8 0

3 years ago

Which of these would have a volume equal to about 2 cm³?

postnew [5]

Answer could be2 grains of rice

5 0

3 years ago