Given the fact that energy conversion is not entirely efficient, it is impossible to produce a perpetual motion machine.
<h3>What is a perpetual motion machine?</h3>
The perpetual motion machine in one that is able to work continuously without stopping. This would mean that the efficiency of this machine must that the machine is 100% efficient which violates the second law of thermodynamics.
Thus, given the fact that energy conversion is not entirely efficient and energy looses cause machines not function effectively, it is impossible to produce a perpetual motion machine.
Learn kore about a perpetual motion machine:brainly.com/question/13001849
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Till the time car is just adjacent to the bicycle we can say
distance moved by cycle = distance moved by car
Time taken by car to accelerate from rest
Time taken by cycle to accelerate
now the distance moved by cycle in time "t"
distance moved by car in same time
now make them equal
so cycle will move ahead of car for t = 5.68 s
Answer:
at point F
Explanation:
To know the point in which the pendulum has the greatest potential energy you can assume that the zero reference of the gravitational energy (it is mandatory to define it) is at the bottom of the pendulum.
Then, when the pendulum reaches it maximum height in its motion the gravitational potential energy is
U = mgh
m: mass of the pendulum
g: gravitational constant
The greatest value is obtained when the pendulum reaches y=h
Furthermore, at this point the pendulum stops to come back in ts motion and then the speed is zero, and so, the kinetic energy (K=1/mv^2=0).
A) answer, at point F
Answer:
Explanation:
This is a recoil problem, which is just another application of the Law of Momentum Conservation. The equation for us is:
![[m_av_a+m_ev_e]_b=[m_av_a+m_ev_e]_a](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Bm_av_a%2Bm_ev_e%5D_b%3D%5Bm_av_a%2Bm_ev_e%5D_a)
which, in words, is
The momentum of the astronaut plus the momentum of the piece of equipment before the equipment is thrown has to be equal to the momentum of all that same stuff after the equipment is thrown. Filling in:
![[(90.0)(0)+(.50)(0)]_b=[(90.0)(v)+(.50)(-4.0)]_a](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5B%2890.0%29%280%29%2B%28.50%29%280%29%5D_b%3D%5B%2890.0%29%28v%29%2B%28.50%29%28-4.0%29%5D_a)
Obviously, on the left side of the equation, nothing is moving so the whole left side equals 0. Doing the math on the right and paying specific attention to the sig fig's here (notice, I added a 0 after the 4 in the velocity value so our sig fig's are 2 instead of just 1. 1 is useless in most applications).
0 = 90.0v - 2.0 and
2.0 = 90.0v so
v = .022 m/s This is the rate at which he is moving TOWARDS the ship (negative was moving away from the ship, as indicated by the - in the problem). Now we can use the d = rt equation to find out how long this process will take him if he wants to reach his ship before he dies.
12 = .022t and
t = 550 seconds, which is the same thing as 9.2 minutes
The answer to the question is that before the big bang, the universe was much hotter and more dense than it is now. Letter B.
It is because after the big bag occurred, the universe became cooler and less dense.
a. - does not correspond in the answer because the universe became less dense after the big bang.
c - the universe became cool and less dense after the big bang so being cool and less dense does not correspond to the question.
d - cooler does not answer the question because it only became cooler after the big bang.
