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3 years ago

Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is divided into seven ranges of wavelengths and is the part visible to the human eye

2 answers:

6 0

In one of the most amazing coincidences in all of science,
the part of the electromagnetic spectrum that's visible to the
human eye is called "visible light".

Visible light is not 'divided' into anything. We mention the names
to seven of the colors in visible light. But all of the thousands of
OTHER colors that we can see are in there too, even though we
don't bother to list their names when we buzz through the rainbow
in the third grade.

Mice21 [21]3 years ago

6 0

Answer: B. visible light

Explanation:

Electromagnetic wave is defined as the wave which is associated with both electrical and magnetic component associated with them. They can travel in vacuum as well and travel with the speed of light.

Electromagnetic spectrum consists of electromagnetic waves called as radio waves, microwaves, infrared, Visible, ultraviolet , X rays and gamma rays in order of increasing frequency and decreasing wavelength.

Visible light is composed of seven colors as violet, indigo , blue , green, yellow, orange and red light which are arranged in order of increasing wavelengths which is visible to naked eye.

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an incandescent lightbulb has an efficiency of 2.1% and a power of 60 w. how much light energy does the lighbulb produce in 1 se

AveGali [126]

Explanation:

Power output of the bulb:

0.021 × 60 W = 1.26 W

Energy produced by the bulb in 1 second:

E = Pt

E = (1.26 W) (1 s)

E = 1.26 J

Round as needed.

5 0

3 years ago

A floating ice block is pushed through a displacement d = (14 m) i hat - (11 m) j along a straight embankment by rushing water,

Alika [10]

Explanation:

Given that,

Displacement in ice block, $d=14i-11j$

Force exerted by water, $F=158i-179j$

To find,

Work done by the force during the displacement.

Solve,

We know that the product of force and displacement is called work done. It is also equal to the dot product of force and displacement as :

$W=F.d$

$W=(158i-179j).(14i-11j)$

We know that, i.i = j.j = k.k = 1

$W=2212+1969=4181\ J$

So, the work done by the force on the block during the displacement is 4181 Joules.

7 0

2 years ago

The potential-energy function u(x) is zero in the interval 0≤x≤l and has the constant value u0 everywhere outside this interval.

VMariaS [17]

Look first for the relation between deBroglie wavelength (λ) and kinetic energy (K):
K = ½mv²
v = √(2K/m)
λ = h/(mv)
= h/(m√(2K/m))
= h/√(2Km)

So λ is proportional to 1/√K.
in the potential well the potential energy is zero, so completely the electron's energy is in the shape of kinetic energy:
K = 6U₀

Outer the potential well the potential energy is U₀, so
K = 5U₀
(because kinetic and potential energies add up to 6U₀)

Therefore, the ratio of the de Broglie wavelength of the electron in the region x>L (outside the well) to the wavelength for 0<x<L (inside the well) is:
1/√(5U₀) : 1/√(6U₀)
= √6 : √5

5 0

3 years ago

HELP ;

mestny [16]

Answer:

The frequency would double.

Explanation:

Given:

Speed of wave (v) = constant.

Frequency of wave initially (f₁) = 2 Hz

Initial wavelength of the wave (λ₁) = 1 m

Final wavelength of the wave (λ₂) = 0.5 m

Final frequency of the wave (f₂) = ?

We know that the product of wavelength and frequency of the wave is equal to the speed of the wave.

Therefore, framing in equation form, we have:

Wavelength × Frequency = Speed

$\lambda\times f=v$

It is given that speed of the wave remains the same. So, the product must always be a constant.

Therefore,

$\lambda\times f=constant\ or\ \\\lambda_1\times f_1=\lambda_2\times f_2$

Now, plug in the given values and solve for 'f₂'. This gives,

$1\times 2=0.5\times f_2\\\\f_2=\frac{2}{0.5}=4\ Hz$

Therefore, the final frequency is 4 Hz which is double of the initial frequency.

f₂ = 2f₁ = 2 × 2 = 4 Hz

So, the second option is correct.

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A table tennis ball with a mass of 0.003 kg and a soccer ball with a mass of 0.43 kg or both Serta name motion at 16 M/S calcula

poizon [28]

Let us first know the given: Tennis ball has a mass of 0.003 kg, Soccer ball has a mass of 0.43 kg. Having the same velocity at 16 m/s. First the equation for momentum is P=MV P=Momentum M=Mass V=Velocity. Now let us have the solution for the momentum of tennis ball. Pt=0.003 x 16 m/s= ( kg-m/s ) I use the subscript "t" for tennis. Momentum of Soccer ball Ps= 0.43 x 13m/s = ( km-m/s). If we going to compare the momentum of both balls, the heavier object will surely have a greater momentum because it has a larger mass, unless otherwise the tennis ball with a lesser mass will have a greater velocity to be equal or greater than the momentum of a soccer ball.

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers