I think the probability is 1 because they’re mixed
I suppose you just have to simplify this expression.
(2ˣ⁺² - 2ˣ⁺³) / (2ˣ⁺¹ - 2ˣ⁺²)
Divide through every term by the lowest power of 2, which would be <em>x</em> + 1 :
… = (2ˣ⁺²/2ˣ⁺¹ - 2ˣ⁺³/2ˣ⁺¹) / (2ˣ⁺¹/2ˣ⁺¹ - 2ˣ⁺²/2ˣ⁺¹)
Recall that <em>n</em>ª / <em>n</em>ᵇ = <em>n</em>ª⁻ᵇ, so that we have
… = (2⁽ˣ⁺²⁾ ⁻ ⁽ˣ⁺¹⁾ - 2⁽ˣ⁺³⁾ ⁻ ⁽ˣ⁺¹⁾) / (2⁽ˣ⁺¹⁾ ⁻ ⁽ˣ⁺¹⁾ - 2⁽ˣ⁺²⁾ ⁻ ⁽ˣ⁺¹⁾)
… = (2¹ - 2²) / (2⁰ - 2¹)
… = (2 - 4) / (1 - 2)
… = (-2) / (-1)
… = 2
Another way to get the same result: rewrite every term as a multiple of <em>y</em> = 2ˣ :
… = (2²×2ˣ - 2³×2ˣ) / (2×2ˣ - 2²×2ˣ)
… = (4×2ˣ - 8×2ˣ) / (2×2ˣ - 4×2ˣ)
… = (4<em>y</em> - 8<em>y</em>) / (2<em>y</em> - 4<em>y</em>)
… = (-4<em>y</em>) / (-2<em>y</em>)
… = 2
Answe
Step-by-step explanation:
You can write this as a ratio to find the answer, but you first need to convert the gallon of white paint into ounces, which is 160 ounces. The ratio, red to blue to white, is 4:28:160, which you can simplify by dividing by 4 into 1:7:40. If 80 ounces of red tint are used, you need to multiply each value in the ratio by 80, which gives you 80:560:3200. This shows that you need 560 ounces of blue tint, which can also be written as 3.5 gallons. I hope this helps!
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
I need the question to answer please :)
