Answer:
The binomial probability formula can not be used for this experiment because it does not state the number of times he expects to draw his favorite suit.
Step-by-step explanation:
The binomial probability formula is expressed as follows:
P (k success in n trials) = 
n = number of trials, k = number of successes, n-k = number of failures, p = probability of success in one trial and q = 1 - p = probability of failure in one trial.
In the given problem, all of the variables are known except for 'k', the amount of times that the student predicts he will draw his favorite suit.
V = l * w * h
470.40 = 6.4 * 9.8 * h
Multiply the length and width on the right side of the equation.
470.40 = 62.72 * h
Divide both sides by 62.72
7.5 cm = h
CHECK
V = l * w * h
V = 6.4 * 9.8 * 7.5
V = 470.4 cm^3
{0,3,5,8} ok this0 is the an0sw0er
Answer:
I promise you this is easier than it looks, just bare with me.
You have to order these numbers from the smallest to the biggest. Now before we do this, we wanna make the fractions and mixed numbers decimals to make this easier.
5 8/11
Convert the fraction to a decimal: Divide the numerator by the denominator. (8 divide by 11).
Add this decimal number to the whole number part of the mixed number. (0.72 plus 5)
It would be 5.72
Now 57/10
The same steps as the last one, but since it isn't a mixed number you don't add anything. (57 divided by 10)
It would be 5.7
Now we have to order them from least to greatest. How do we figure that out? Well lets list the numbers that we have now:
5.72
5.7
5.67
5.726
Now since they all have the same whole number, we just have to look at the numbers after the decimal. Well the least number we have here is "7". Then it would be 67, then 72, then 726.
So the answer would be from least to greatest:
5.7
5.67
5.72
5.726
I hope this helps..sorry if I took so long I wanted to make sure I explained this as good as I can so you don't keep struggling. Good luck, take care <3
Have a good night/day (:! Much love!
