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romanna [79]
3 years ago
14

Why is it harder to remove an inner shell electron than a valence electron from an atom

Chemistry
2 answers:
weeeeeb [17]3 years ago
8 0
I should think because the valence bonds want to escape and bond more whereas the inner layers are for the most part stable
kow [346]3 years ago
3 0
They're closer to the nuclei....ionization energy is higher. having inner shells and a valence only means that the inner shells are conpletely filled and stable.
valence electrons are easily removed only if the number of electrons is =<3 otherwise, they gain rlectrons.
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Which compound is an Arrhenius base?
Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]
I was hoping that some choices would be given to choose from. As there are no choices given, so i am answering the question based on my knowledge and hope that it comes to your help. Calcium hydroxide is a good example of Arrhenius base. An Arrhenius base is actually a substance that releases a hydroxyl ion in water.
3 0
3 years ago
Task Card #1
kumpel [21]

Answer:

B. Gas formation

Explanation:

When you combine baking soda and vinegar - which I'm assuming happened to create this reaction - it forms carbon dioxide, a gas.

5 0
3 years ago
You need to prepare 150 mL of 0.1 M solution of silver chloride. How much silver chloride is required?
Rudiy27

Answer:

amount of silver chloride required is 0.015 moles or 2.1504 g

Explanation:

0.1M AgCL means 0.1mol/dm³ or 0.1mol/L

1L = 1000mL

if 0.1mol of AgCl is contained in 1000mL of solution

then x will be contained in 150mL of solution

cross multiply to find x

x = (0.1*150)/1000

x= 0.015 moles

moles of silver chloride present in 150 mL of solution is 0.15 moles

To convert this to grams, simply multiply this value by the molar mass of silver chloride

molar mass of silver chloride AgCl =107.86 + 35.5

                                                     =143.36 g/mol

mass of AgCl = moles *molar mass

                       =0.015*143.36

                        =2.1504g

                        =

4 0
3 years ago
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lesantik [10]

Answer:

?

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
URGENT.
Sergio [31]

Answer:

1. 72.9 atm

2. 0.43937 K

Explanation:

1. Gray- lussacs law is p1/t1=p2/t2 so we use this formula to figure it out by filling in the variables and solving

p1=45.0 atm

t1=323 K

p2= ?

t2=523 K

Now we fill in this in the formula and solve - 45.0 atm/ 323 K = p2/ 523 K

and now we solve for p2 by multiplying 535k by each side to give us p2

2. Using the same formula we get 10.0atm/? = 12.0 atm/ 273.15 k and we divide both sides by 10.0 atm

4 0
3 years ago
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