Answer:
Explanation:
MIRR equation is given by :
[(FV +ve cashflow / PV -ve cashflow)^(1/n)] - 1
FV +ve cashflow = Future value of positive cashflow at reinvestment rate
PV - ve cashflow = Present value of negative cashflow at finance rate
n = number of periods
The Modified Internal Rate of Return is a devised modification for the Internal rate of return, IRR which gives rate of return on percentage and overcomes the limitations of the IRR formula.
a. a discount of 2 percent will be allowed if the invoice is paid within 10 days of the invoice date.
So for example if the bill is $100 "2/10 net 30" and you pay within 10 days, you get a 20 cent discount and the balance is $9.80. If you pay in 30 days, the full 10 dollars is due.
The correct answer is A) alignment.
After spending months finalizing a marketing plan, the lead marketing manager presents it to the entire company. It soon becomes clear that the budget given in the plan is far lower than the marketing team had determined it would need. This mistake is likely a result of a lack of alignment.
This means that the marketing manager did not respect the parameters originally indicated. His numbers did not align with the necessities of the plan, which means that he did not take into consideration some important factors that at the end, affected the end result of the budget.
Answer:
$6,480,000
Explanation:
The computation of the amount of the current liabilities is shown below:
Total assets of $11,200,000
Less: Noncurrent assets $1,480,000
Current Assets = $9,720,000
Now as we know that
Current ratio = Current Assets ÷ Current Liabilities
Current Liabilites is
= $9,720,000 ÷ 1.5
= $6,480,000
hence, the current liabilities is $6,480,000
